saying what something is for.
Why is it that when you ask what something is used for, "usar and utilizer " seem to be pronominal verbs?
example:" El zumo de limón sirve para aliviar los resfriados." BUT " El zumo de limón se usa para aliviar los resfriados." AND "El zumo de limón se utiliza para aliviar los resfriados."
I have looked up "usarse" but cannot find "Utilizarse" so are they pronominal verbs or is "se" there to mean "it". If so, why isn't "El zumo de limón se sirve para aliviar los resfriados"?
2 Answers
Hi Maglet!
I had the same problem too so, If I am not mistaken.
"El zumo de limón se usa para aliviar los resfriados."
Lets start with this sentence. In this sentence, "SE" is used as "impersonal se" to make the sentence passive.
That means : "The lemon juice 'is used (se usa)' to relieve colds." and which also means, Generally It is the use of the lemon, that's why people use the lemon. It is used by people (we are not pointing out to anyone).
And the same reason is also acceptable for "se utiliza".
Here, you can find more information :
• http://uts.cc.utexas.edu/~annw/se-impers.html
• http://www.drlemon.com/Grammar/impersonal.html
And this is the link of the topic I've created to ask the same question, you may want to take a look at it.
Good luck!
To expand a little on what Porfavordama has said, different verbs are used differently. In this case both match the English very well.
Usar and utilizar are almost always used transitively. Someone uses something. When it is not transitive, then it must be passive se/pronominal. There are exceptions but they are not common. Transitive means a direct object is required. Intransitive means a direct object is not required.
"I use the thing for a purpose". But you cannot say: "the thing uses for a purpose"- it is missing something, and you have to go passive- "the thing is used for a purpose". The se mimics the passive by allowing the object to be the subject as well.
With serve- it can be used both transitively and intransitively, but means something different in each case:
"I serve it"- transitive. And passively it is served. It is served here on Tuesdays.
"But it serves". This sentence works fine. "It serves a purpose". It is not serving anything- there is no direct object. A purpose is an indirect object-" it serves (for) a purpose". So there is no need for a se, and the se would convert the meaning to the above if you used it- "it is served".
In this case the English and the Spanish match very well. This is not always the case, and you must learn each verb and how it is used, and not assume that it will match the way a similar verb is used in English.
