Indirect or direct object pronoun with llamar

Question

I hear both ways: voy a llamarla and voy a llamarle Are they both correct?

Welcome to SpanishDict. Your profile says you are fluent in both, Spanish and English. - rac1, Dec 31, 2015

In my opinion when someone designates themselves as fluent they are capable of clarifying any question about usage in the language. This is a grammar question so I understand why you may have asked it. But it is not a question a native speaker would ask. - Jubilado, Dec 31, 2015

I wasn't being critical of you personally, but cautioning you regarding how you may be perceived in future posts. Thanks for joining the forum with your skills. - Jubilado, Dec 31, 2015

That's ok, jubilafo. I'm just curious since I hear and read both and have to explain them to my students . - caritag, Jan 2, 2016

Answer 1

I believe this is an example of "leismo" where the direct object "lo/la" is replaced with "le" when referring to a person.

As such both are correct.

I can't say that this is true everywhere but here (Baja. Mexico) native speakers almost never attach the pronoun to the infinitive. They would say...La/Le voy a llamar. I always attach it to the infinitive as that is the action verb to which the pronoun is related. One of the 10,000 reasons why I will never be fluent.

Thank you ! - caritag, Jan 2, 2016

Answer 2

Depends:

like gringo stated, there is leísmo which is somewhat accepted or should i say tolerated in many places even in Spain.

"Le" can be used to be extra formal and a bit sardonic, if you will.

Le/la/lo voy a llamar a usted, señor/señora

Le/te voy a llamar un taxi a usted/ti.

Would this help?

Edit: I added a comma to the first example. Would that be better understood, now?

Chileno, I have drunk to much, and it's nowhere near midnight yet.. - annierats, Dec 31, 2015

He or she wants to say they need to call her. - annierats, Dec 31, 2015

Not that they want her to be called by outside person?? - annierats, Dec 31, 2015

you cant say ''lo voy a llamar a usted'' doesn't sound right. - chrisxr, Dec 31, 2015

chris, that's how we use it in Chile. :) - chileno, Jan 1, 2016

Annie, read my edit, please. - chileno, Jan 1, 2016

Yes, fine, I think I was a bit thick, as usual plus too much to eat and drink, this time of year does not lend itself to cleverness. - annierats, Jan 1, 2016

My fault also for not including the comma. - chileno, Jan 2, 2016

Oh ok, well that's different :) every place have their slangs and waya of saying things. - chrisxr, Jan 6, 2016

chrisxr, it isn't slang. If anything "la" would be wrong and you could say we are laísta. - chileno, Jan 6, 2016

Answer 3

Si vas a llamar a una mujer creo que ' voy a llamarla ' es la forma correcta.

Chileno seems to agree , or possibly disagree, I'm none too sure..

no es correct - chrisxr, Dec 31, 2015

chris xr I don;t what I was thinking... too many things happening around me... :D - chileno, Dec 31, 2015

see? - chileno, Dec 31, 2015

hahahaha - chileno, Dec 31, 2015

Annie, did you get this? - chileno, Jan 1, 2016

Jeje? - annierats, Jan 1, 2016