There will be

Question

In english we use the phrase.

There will be ........

Why do we translate into spanish using "habrá"?

Thanking you for the explanation.

There is/there are = hay in Spanish. Hay comes from the verb Haber and the future of this verb is habra ( sorry can't do accent- forgot to put Spanish keyboard on) - Judy58, Oct 25, 2015

Haber is also used as aux. Verb for perfect tenses - Judy58, Oct 25, 2015

Please capitalise at all times we have members learning "English "here. - ray76, Oct 25, 2015

Welcome to SpanishDict, Judy. Please fill out your profile. This is important if you're giving answers on SD. Thanks. - rac1, Oct 25, 2015

Answer 1

Because in Spanish To have = haber or tener

But then:

There is = hay (sing)

There are = hay (pl)

There was = había

There were = hubo

There will be = habrá

There would be = habría

There it is = allí está

There isn't = no hay

Good catch! I forgot sometimes you can use "está" to mean "there is" - HackerKing, Oct 25, 2015

I had forggoten to make **it** bold. :) - chileno, Oct 26, 2015

Answer 2

EDIT: I wanted to first point out "habrá" is the future tense of the verb "haber". If you're asking more philosophically "why on earth is "haber" even used at all", then my answer might be helpful

Why is "habrá" used? Because that's just how Spanish is. All languages are arbitrary and full of strange quirks. There's no good reason for it, it basically just is.

In linguistics, the verb that equates the subject and predicate of a sentence is called the copula. In English, the copula is the verb "to be". Automatically, you should be aware that Spanish has two copulas: "ser" and "estar (1)". Some languages don't have any copulas.

The phrase that indicates the existence of some object is called an existential clause. In English, the existential clause is usually indicated by "there" plus the copula. So to indicate that some X existed in the past, you would usually say "there was X". (2)

In Spanish the existential clause is not indicated by the copula at all (3). Instead, it is indicated by the verb "haber". So you'd say "Habrá X" to indicate that some X will exist in the future.

The existential clause is one of the reasons languages can't be translated word for word. Some languages (like Hindi and Japanese) only use the copula to express it. Some languages (like Spanish) have a verb that expresses it. And some (like English) use some combination of words to do so.

(1) Spanish also sometimes uses "quedar" as the copula too

(2) Note that the existential clause is indicated differently in some dialects of English (in parts of the US you'll hear it formed by "it" plus the copula. For example "It's a man at the door").

(3) EDIT: chileno's examples reminded me that occasionally, the copula "estar" will be used to in an existential clause. Usually this is in the present tense (like in her example "allí está"

Great explanation. As I am an amateur word-nerd, I love this kind of stuff. ;-) - Winkfish, Oct 25, 2015

Reading a good explanation of grammar is like listening to a Mozart sonata. Beautiful! - Jubilado, Oct 25, 2015

For you math nerds, think of the copula as an "=" sign. - Daniela2041, Oct 25, 2015

Answer 3

Just as Judy said, future tense of the auxiliary verb Haber - to have ....

In the words of the Beatles song , Habrá una respuesta, déjalo ser. There will be an answer, let it be.