se puede decir "has sido ir" ?

Question

Hola,

Se puede usar :

he/has/ha/hemos/habeis/han + el participio pasado + infinitivo eg. has sido ir ...?

para expresar la frase como en ingles: "have you been going..."? Es comun para decirlo en espanol?

Welcome to the forum , we want to help you so fill out your profile If you have a problem PM a mod Bienvenido al foro. Queremos ayudarle, entonces hay que llenar su perfil. Si hay un problema, envíe un mensaje personal (PM) - ray76, Sep 16, 2015

You need to express the question more clearly in English . - ray76, Sep 16, 2015

Answer 1

Totally no. In Spanish there is no context to say that as part of a sentence.

I never have heard the expression have you been going but i think that it means has estado yendo.

It is a common error for non native Spanish speaker to use the verb ser instead of estar (In English both are to be). Besides, I don't know why you write the last verb in infinitive form when in English is in *ing form. Sometimes Spanish is easier than people do it .

XD, I know hehehe, my English teachers must be crying now - txustaboy, Sep 16, 2015

Txusta, would you please allow me to suggest one small correction to your English? - FELIZ77, Sep 16, 2015

i 'have' (not has) never heard the expression etc - FELIZ77, Sep 16, 2015

Don't worry, Txusta, we all make mistakes I have probably made worse ones in your language lol My typing teachers would be tearing their hair out or weeping beckets over my typing errors lol hahahah - FELIZ77, Sep 16, 2015

Than people make it sounds more natural - Mardle, Sep 16, 2015

Correction: I mean, weeping bUckets lol - FELIZ77, Sep 16, 2015

Answer 2

Helllo Ohyn and welcome to the SpanishDict forum

You asked:

se puede decir "has sido ir" ?

No, never!

In English we might occasionally use the construction: Have you been ...watching , learning .etc....? followed by the appropriate infinitive but it doesn't translate literally into other languages in the same way ( I speak as someone who is learning several languges right now. My native one is English) because natives in other languages have other ways to express the same thing in their own language...and in some cases they may not not even have a direct equivalent! .

Uusally in situations when they express the same idea 'I have been doing something for a particular period of time:they use the present indicative in an idiomatic way:

For example, in castellano, (Spanish used in Spain) they use this consstruction;

the verb llevar in the preeent indicative followed by the gerund + period of time (must be specified)

p.ej: Llevo aprendiendo español cinco años = I have been learning Spanish for five years

o

Llevamos viviendo en Madrid diez años = We have been living in Madrid ten years

In South America eg Colombia they they use a different construction and say: He estado aprendiendo español cinco años, = i have been learning Spanish (for) five years.

o Hemos estado viviendo en Bogota diez años.= We have been living in Bogota ten years

The French also use the present indicative in this idiomatic way to express the idea that you having been /one has been doing something for a particular, specified period of time!

I hope this helps

You are right, but in Spain we use both: "he estado viviendo" or "llevo viviendo". But when we use the first, commonly,it is finished (I have lived but not now) - txustaboy, Sep 16, 2015

Ah, muchas gracias por tu explicación - FELIZ77, Sep 16, 2015

Besides, you call castellano to the Spanish spoken in Spain and that's an error. The Spanish spoken in Spain is Español not castellano. - txustaboy, Sep 17, 2015

Due to political reasons some areas call it castellano. This is "to show independence" of Spain. - txustaboy, Sep 17, 2015

Oh , Okay thank you for explaining that :) - FELIZ77, Sep 17, 2015

Answer 3

awesome thanks!!!