present perfect vs preterite
I have heard before that in Spain they always use the present prefect and they only use the preterite when it's something in the distant past. Is this correct?
Also I heard that in South-America they always use the preterite. So when I went to Bolivia I always used the preterite, but I was quite suprised to hear they do use the present perfect!
I hope, it possible for some native speakers( or other people who know) to explain in which situations they use the preterite and in which they use the present perfect. ( and please mention where you are from!)
4 Answers
Don't believe everything you hear. The Spanish use the preterite for any happening in the past that is finished with, at a given point in time, such as yesterday.
Ayer fui a la playa.
this is a difference I understand better. But note that this is the way it's used in Spain
link: http://forum.wordreference.com/threads/compré-vs-he-comprado-pretérito-perfecto-vs-indefinido.209804/
It's actually says you should use the present perfect when it's in the "time frame " close to you. When you mean today, this morning, this weeken, this week , this month
As in :Hoy he ido al supermercado Esta semana he ido al cine tres veces (it’s Wednesday of the same week, the unit of time “week” (“semana”) hasn’t finished yet) Este mes no he estudiado nada (it’s 22nd May when we say that, the unit of time “month-May” (“mes - mayo”) hasn’t finished yet) when we use “esta mañana”, “este fin de semana”, etc because the speaker is close to that moment or it’s his/her intention to make it closer.
the preterite is used when you mean it has no connection with the present or the " time frame " close to you, like yesterday, last week, monday , 3 years ago etc.
also note that the words like yesterday doesn't have to be said. In general we can say: in Pretérito Indefinido the action is finished and the unit of time too, while in Pretérito Perfecto the unit of time is not. Sometimes by using the Pretérito Perfecto we make the action sound closed to the present but both tenses would be correct ¿Has terminado el proyecto? or ¿Terminaste el proyecto? ¿Has terminado de leer el libro de Borges? or ¿Terminaste de leer el libro de Borges?
In Latin america it's different. the fact that it's finished is more important than the fact that it's in a recent timeframe. That's the reason why they would say "Esta mañana llegué tarde al trabajo" instead of "Esta mañana he llegado tarde al trabajo "
but in latin america they still do use the present perfect! in cases when it's not finish but still in the same time frame!
ex 1: "ha vivido en mexico por 10 years" ( and he is continuing doing so! so it's not finished and has a connection with the present )
ex 2: (dog crossing the street ) "has visto el perro?" ( when he just just was there, and even it's still almost possible to see him ) but if they would talk about the dog an hour later: "viste el perro? "
I too have heard that usage differs between Europe on one hand, and, on the other, Latin America (& the Canaries, which although part of Spain, have close ties with Latin America).
In practical terms for me at the stage where I presently find myself in Spanish, it actually makes very little difference because natives speak so fast or unclearly that I'm lucky if I can recognise the verb in any form let alone worry about how it's being conjugated.
Nonetheless, as I understand it, all Spanish-speakers use both, but in Europe they're more inclined to use the past perfect for events that have already occurred on the same day, whereas in Latin America they're more inclined to use the preterite.
For me in English the distinction is: (1) I use the past perfect to describe something I've done but without specific time for it; (2) I use the preterite to describe something I did at a specific time. However, even among English-speakers there are differences in usage. For example, I believe Americans are more inclined to use the preterite.
That said, in terms of clarity sometimes common words (including frequently used verbs) become very garbled to the point of being unintelligible even to fellow native speakers from other areas. For example, only this afternoon I met a colleague in the street, who I was surprised to see was walking, so I asked him if he had his car with him. However, what actually came out of my mouth was more like, 'Aya goat yer cor wi ye the day ?'.
Having recently returned from Tenerife where I understood very little of what the locals were saying, I guess many people adopt a slurry form of their own language when talking among other locals. I also watched Spanish TV in Tenerife and could understand it much better than anyone around me, but that's because TV presenters are trained to speak 'properly' and 'neutrally'.
Buena suerte 
Please don't focus your effort in learning the language on this stuff. What happens is that it is a concept which is not even settled even in our language.
Most people like you, learning the language mention this thing about "being finished in time" meaning the past.
Now please pay attention at how I use both expressions, at least to me that's how I perceive them as a native Chilean.
First of all, in both tenses the action is in the past and are indeed finished.
Take for instance.
This morning I have fallen from my bed.
This morning I fell from my bed.
Which tense represents something that is still happening?
None, right?
Now, maybe more context will help to understand this concept:
Something happened or has happened while I was having breakfast, and that kept me or has kept me laughing all the way to work, and now I am relating this to you, my co-workers. In fact, I am still laughing as I am relating this to you.
I hope it helps.
Edit: Even in English I could relate what happened or has happened yesterday. It is not about when the fact happened, it is about how I decide to relate the tale (and situate myself in time, or whatever), isn't it?
