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"I try to make use of everything".

"I try to make use of everything".

2
votes

'Intento hacer uso de todo', is it required to include 'lo' with 'todo' in the translation?

1034 views
updated Jul 15, 2015
posted by sue16492

4 Answers

5
votes

Intento HACER USO DE todo. Its ok .

The expresion ,"Hacer uso de" goes always without "lo/la/le". If you want to use the "lo" you must remove the expresion "hacer uso de". For example:

Intento usarLO todo.(it has the same meaning)

Apologize.

I didnt make a good job in my answer.

Lo or la are used to replace to the direct object in the sentence, in this case (everything).

I use a car .yo uso un coche

I use it. (Yo lo (the car ) uso.

But everything is an abstract conpcept and it cant be replaced by lo. Then the correct translation to i try to use eveything would be . Intento usar todo. When i say intento usarlo todo. "Lo" refers to all the things that i have , or are near to me or i imagine. In all cases all these things arent equal to everything , because everything will be always biger than all these things. Then the translation to intento usarlolo todo would be i try to use everithing (things i have or are near to me or...... depending on the context you are saying it.

Sorry for my english. I,am sure somebody else better than me iwill apears to help you

updated Jul 15, 2015
edited by 000a35ff
posted by 000a35ff
"intento usarlo todo" will be "I try to use everything", right? But it means the same thing. Thanks - sue16492, Jul 14, 2015
i try to use everithing would be intento usar todo. . there is a little diference . intento usarlo todo would be that i try to use everything (that i have to use). - 000a35ff, Jul 14, 2015
Thanks for the explaination - sue16492, Jul 15, 2015
2
votes

Same thing in English.

I intend to make use of it all

I intend to use it all

Right?

updated Jul 15, 2015
edited by chileno
posted by chileno
oh, I see now.It's like 'I try to make use of all' and 'I try to make use of it all'. - sue16492, Jul 15, 2015
1
vote

Seems to me that there is another view of the difference between "usar" and "usarlo" which is that "usarlo needs an antecedent or referent. If you have a pile of stuff lying on your kitchen floor and you indicate that it is a topic of interest then "usarlo" is exact and perfect. On the other hand, "usar" on its own fails to identify what is to be used unless the definition follows.

To try a different example, let's consider my wife's collection of allsorts waiting to be listed on eBay. If she spoke Spanish she could give an airy wave to the immediate seven shelves and say "intento venderlo todo" or "intento vender todo lo que se vea aqui". Both are correct unlike the situation where, without defining her reference she might say "intento vender todo" which is not as it fails to identify what is included. Is she going to sell the carpet, the shelves, the house or even ME?

updated Jul 15, 2015
posted by geofc
Thank you! I understood now. - sue16492, Jul 15, 2015
0
votes

Oops! I filed the same answer twice.

updated Jul 14, 2015
edited by geofc
posted by geofc