Subjunctive or Not
In my studies I came across this sentence, to be translated into Spanish: Youll be happy to know that we have spent the money...". The source material gives this translation: "Te alegrarás de saber que hemos gastado el dinero...". There is no doubt that the money was spent, so "hemos gastado" seems correct to me. Another student thinks that, because there is an emotional component, "Te alegraras", that it would indicate the present subjunctive, i.e. "hayamos gastado". Which would be correct? Thanks.
3 Answers
In my opinion it would be indicative.
Te alegrarás puts its emotional content into "saber"- if there was a subject change you would have to put "te alegrarás de que" followed by saber conjugated to the person the subject is changing to in the subjunctive, but since there is not, it is in the infinitive.
"que hemos gastado el dinero" is controlled by saber, not "te alegrarás" and hence does not require the subjunctive.
If you removed "saber" then it would be sujunctive:
Te alegrarás de que hayamos gastado el dinero.'
Because "te alegrarás" is now directly controlling haber.
This is my opinión as an intermediate level learner.
My mother tonge is the spanish. I can't explain it well but l can say you how i would say this sentence. It is just like bosquederoble has posted.
Te alegrarás de saber que hemos gastado el dinero.
(Indicativo. He wants we spend the money)
But in the case that we don't use "saber" ¡ would say: Te alegrarás de que hayamos gastado el dinero. (Sudjuntivo. We are sure that we spend the money is just he needs. But he is doubtful .
Please correct my terrible english
I'm not a native speaker but I would stick with the indicative because the purpose of the phrase is likely to inform the person of some heretofore unknown information.
Indicative to declare.
Subjunctive for everything else.