Object pronoun question
Hi, I have a question regarding using object pronouns. I have noticed (from listening to people talk or reading examples) that when a specified thing or person is receiving an action, a pronoun is still used (I guess in my case they are indirect objects). Por ejemplo:
A quién le estás diciendolo? - Who are you saying it to? (To whom are you saying it?) A mi me estás diciendolo? - Are you saying it to me?
Do we still need 'le' even though we already have 'A quien'? Can you say: "A quién estás diciendolo?" And for the second part, could you just say: "Me estás diciendolo?"
Or maybe they're all correct? Or one sounds more/less natural or weird than the other? Thanks!
1 Answer
I will give you my opinion, and then hopefully Julian will be along to fix it.
A quién le estás diciéndolo?
To whom are you telling it.
Lo is the direct object, attached to the gerund, le is the indirect object and does refer to A quién.
In Spanish there is a phenomenon known as redundant indirect object pronouns, in which the indirect object is included even if the actual noun it refers to is there.
This is for indirect objects, not direct objects
I believe that it is preferred when the indirect object itself (not the pronoun) follows the verb, and that it is obligatory when the indirect object precedes the verb:
A Juan le gusta bailar- correct
A Juan gusta bailar- never correct (it sounds horrid even to me, a non-native)
Dije la verdad a mi esposa- technically correct but not preferred
Le dije la verdad a mi esposa- correct and preferred.
The A mí in your example just serves for emphasis, as is not needed.
Me estás diciéndolo- is correct- The A mí just serves to add "as opposed to anyone else sense", especially if you were talking about someone before that you want to contrast with. In the case you have- following the A quién, then A mí it probably serves well to keep it just for the nice emphasis.
