Imperfect Subjunctive 2... What is this ?

Question

I note that the Spanish Dict translator and other resources give an alternative version for the imperfect subjunctive, e.g. ser: fuese / fueses / fuese / fuésemos etc.

I actually came across 'fuese' in a book yesterday. I could figure out the overall meaning from the rest of the sentence, but 'fuese' threw me until I looked it up.

Why is there another set of endings for the imperfect subjunctive ? Is this a literary conjugation only ?

Gracias por ayudarme

No, no es una forma literaria, la usamos todos los días. Algunos usan más la forma "-era", otros la forma "-ese", pero las intercambiamos siempre que queremos, y normalmente sin pensar en ello y sin darnos cuenta de que usamos una forma u otra. - Cordobesa, May 13, 2015

Thanks... And you do this why ? Beacuse Spanish verbs would be too easy otherwise... ? ;-) - Faldaesque, May 13, 2015

You see it alot in books, I think it is a way of avoiding repetition. You hear it too. Sadly, more complications! - annierats, May 13, 2015

(Un)fortunately at this stage I don't really 'hear' anything except a sea of Spanish... Ojalá !! - Faldaesque, May 13, 2015

Answer 1

The -se form derives from the Latin subjunctive and was, at least in the past, considered to be the traditional and literary form. The -ra form derives from the Latin indicative and has become the more common form in modern Spanish. Some years ago, I tried to unravel the evolution of these two forms from changing and evolving Classical Latin forms, but I lost the will to live. You can get an insight into this by googling, for example, "history of the Spanish verb"

Cheers

Thanks, that's a very succinct yet insightful response. May I take that I don't really need to worry about the-se form for speaking/listening, but only for reading where it's easier to recognise anyway ? :-) - Faldaesque, May 13, 2015

Pretty much so, but Cordobesa's comments apply. You will see and hear both, but the -ra form is common in Spain (spoken) - padrin, May 13, 2015

Answer 2

We have done exercises using it in our class - I assume to stop us becoming complacent and because it is more difficult to remember. I have seen newspaper articles where they have used both forms. Our teacher (from Madrid) says she uses both - though first one is more usual in speech. I have no intention of memorising the second one but just want to understand it if I hear or read it.

Yes, most of the people in Spain use both equally - txustaboy, May 14, 2015

Answer 3

... fuera lo que fuese... This is a very common expression, believe it or not. ( Whatever might have happened// however that might have been)

That's the one I saw !! Except it was 'fuese lo que fuese' (which I gather means exactly the same)... Ojalá !! - Faldaesque, May 13, 2015

Isn't Spanish F U N???? - Daniela2041, May 13, 2015

Sure, because now I'll remember this & drop it into chat with Spanish folk abroad. They'll be amazed & think I'm fluent, though secretly I'm really very not jeje... ;-) - Faldaesque, May 13, 2015

Answer 4

Worth another go around.