v and b again
Most of the threads on this site say to pronounce v and b the same. So why does it sound different in the video translation of "verbo" here? http://www.spanishdict.com/videos/verbo Which region is the speaker from?
7 Answers
First I would like to say that native speakers are usually bad people to ask about pronunciation, other than "does this sound right?". Just like with grammar, native speakers tend to pick up intuitive rules about pronunciation that they can't explain (and most don't even know they follow).
For example, in most dialects of American English, the letter T is pronounced differently based on a series of complex rules (click here). I have yet to meet a native American English speaker who can tell me all these rules (without being taught them prior), yet they use them perfectly every day.
That out of the way, let's look at Spanish.
In most Mexican and Peninsular Spanish dialects, B and V are pronounced exactly the same. I know this must also be a prominent feature of almost every other Spanish dialect because the internet is filled with stuff like "haber si" instead of "a ver si" or "fuiste bestido" for "fuiste vestido".
How they are pronounced depends on dialect. In Spain and Mexico (in most dialects) B/V is the English "B" sound at the beginning of an utterance or after a nasal (n/m/ñ). In all other places, they are pronounced as a bilabial approximants(doesn't exist in English, but it is like buzzing your lips). The English "V" sound is never made by the letters "B"/"V" (expect by bilingual speakers in certain environments).
In Chile, people (or at least my Chilean friends) use the English "V" sound for both "B" and "B".
That's the gist of what I know on the topic of B/V. I'm sure other dialects have their own quirks and kinks.
EDIT: Danielle below points out that the English B is not exactly the same as the "after-nasal" version of Spanish B/V.
The general rule is that "b" or "v" between vowels is the softer "v" sound. But it is NOT like the English "V" which is made by the lower lip vibrating against the top front teeth. It is the two lips coming together and vibrating.
After "m" or "n" or "l" or at the beginning of a "breath group" it will have the harder "B" like sound. Even that is not the same as English. It a fricative and not an occlusive.
In linguistics the sound of the hard "b" is not the same as in English. It is called a "bilabial fricative" which means that the two lips come together to pronounce the sound. It is like the sound between vowels, only you put your lips a little harder together.
Most Spanish speakers are not aware of this. You have to study linguistics to get it.
V and B follows the same pattern as it is in English, however, the most common Spanish in the U.S. is from Mexico and they do not make a clear difference between them. If your goal is to speak it perfectly, V sounds like "v" and B like "b" in English. On the other hand, you being a non native, no one would correct you.
The way we teach it in Colombia is:
B = Bilabial (both lips) V = Labiodental (lip and teeth). Articulated with the lower lip and upper teeth, as the sounds (f) and (v).
There is a reason why they should be pronounced different, specially because we lean on pronunciation for spelling, unlike English that a lot of the times is written one way and spelled totally different.
Here are a few examples:
Baso = Spleen Vaso = Glass (or cup)
Bario = Element Vario = That varies
Bello = Masc. beautiful Vello = Body hair
Bote = Small bote Vote = Vote
... and the list goes on.
So to be true to the language, yes there is a difference in pronunciation and it should be used correctly, but once again, most people around you would not noticed it. If you want to use your Spanish in a business environment, I would suggest you to keep that in mind.
The V is pronounced as a soft B and the B is pronounced as a hard V. You can interpret this as the same pronounciation, however, there are times when the pronounciation will sound slightly harder or softer than you would expect depending on where the V/B appears in a word, rather than being a matter regionalism (at least in Mexico), and these differences in pronounciation simply come naturally - again depending on the word itself.
As long as you understand the basic dynamics of these two letters, I don´t suggest that you worry about it - you will be understood. Your pronounciation will improve with usage, both listening and speaking.
I have a friend from La Paz, Bolivia. She says that she always pronounces the "V's" like English "V's" and the "B's" like English "B's".
I have noticed that Mexican Spanish almost always used the "B" sound in the initial position, so a Mexican would say "berbo" here.
I have also noticed that the "V" sound shows up unexpectedly (to me) in some words. I don't have enough exposure to really know how it all works and I'm sure there are regions where there is only the "B" sound for both letters.
If you are in a particular Spanish speaking country, listen carefully to the native speakers and imitate what you hear. If you are just practicing on your own, pronounce them in English or all of them as "B" (but a very soft B).
You will notice perhaps that Mexicans often say "Weno" for "bueno". This gives you an idea as to how soft the B sound is..
Is it a coincidence that B and V are next to each other on a keyboard?
My son - who is not Spanish in any way had problems with V when young.
He loved cars -
Bolbos, Bolksbagens and Bauxhauls. 
Don't over think this. People make a bigger deal out of it then they need to. Pronounce it the way you feel comfortable, that's what native speakers do. If everyone understands what you're saying, then you're pronouncing it just fine.
In terms of conversation it's rare that this causes any significant issues. It's when you're trying to spell something where the confusion occurs. And to clear things up you just need this very simple phrase, which you can express as a question or a statement:
¿V de vaca or b de burro?
