Why "le habla" versus "lo habla"

Question

I'm reading a textbook on the indirect pronouns "le" and "les." An example sentence shows "El medico le habla." for "the doctor talks to him." Why wouldn't it be "lo habla" .... I would think that he/him is the direct object.

If I'm understanding correctly, "le" "les" are indirect object pronouns.

Answer 1

El médico habla al paciente.

El paciente = indirect object = le.

El médico le habla.

El médico habla inglés.

inglés = direct object = lo.

El médico lo habla.

Lol, excellent example! Double vote. - annierats, Feb 17, 2015

Thank you, annierats! :-) - LuisCache, Feb 17, 2015

Answer 2

Hablar= speak, talk

In English it is clearer if we use speak

The doctor speaks (words) to him.

The words, what he says is what he is speaking- the direct object. The receiver of the words is the indirect object.

A clue in English is that indirect objects are often marked with prepositions like to or for.

The doctor talks to him, the doctor does not talk him.

Precisely. I wonder why they chose such an example, it's not as obvious and clear as, say, darle algo a alguien. - Manity, Feb 17, 2015

There are many poorly written textbooks - 005faa61, Feb 17, 2015

it seemed right to me to say "le habla" but after the explanation of an indirect object in the text, it made me doubt. - lkelly, Feb 17, 2015

Answer 3

Leísmo.

Leísmo

yes! I had to look up this term, and once I saw it, I remembered. Gracias. - lkelly, Feb 17, 2015