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Definite article rule breakers?

Definite article rule breakers?

5
votes

These are the "rules" that I follow for the inclusion/exclusion of the definite article in Spanish:

  1. Include for a definite subject noun (as in English) El gato come ratones - The cat eats mice
  2. Include for a general subject noun (unlike English) Los gatos comen ratones - Cats eat mice
  3. Include for a definite object noun (as in English) El gato come el raton - The cat eats the mouse
  4. Exclude for a general object noun (as in English) El gato come ratones - The cat eats mice --- Exception: Include if a general object noun is abstract or a category (unlike English) Exception to the exception: Exclude if a general abstract object noun is an academic subject (as in English).

They normally seem to work, but then I struck the following examples:

The cats hate water = Los gatos odian el agua (breaks rule 4)

Water is important for humans = El agua es importante para los humanos (breaks rule 4)

Different countries have different cultures = Países diferentes tieneN culturas diferentes (breaks rule 2)

Los humanos están equivocados = The humans are wrong (marked right) Humans are wrong (marked wrong - breaks rule 2)

Any explanation would be appreciated.

3849 views
updated Jul 10, 2017
edited by txustaboy
posted by jellonz
I've just come across a few more "odiar" examples and it seems that they all have the article inclusion with general object nouns so I'm guessing this is just something peculiar to "odiar" (and no doubt some other verbs). - jellonz, Jan 29, 2015
And perhaps the adjective "diferentes" attached to "Países" acts as a determiner, making the definite article unnecessary? - jellonz, Jan 29, 2015
Articles are a pain, every time I think I understand them I learn that I don't. Great question. - 00551866, Jan 30, 2015
It might be helpful if you would give an example for each rule in Spanish and English right after each rule, then give examples that break each rule is Spanish. You post is a little unclear to me. - Jubilado, Jan 30, 2015
Have added some examples for the "rules" Jubilado. - jellonz, Jan 30, 2015
Thanks! I wish I could help you but I'm not at that level of grammatical expertise. I look forward to some answers as I think it is interesting. - Jubilado, Jan 30, 2015

3 Answers

3
votes

EDIT: So I've done some research. Most of the following post is kind of wrong (haha that's what happens when you assume I guess). I've just posted the results of my research. Basically, a noun gains or loses its definite article most of the time due to the sentence around it than any implicit quality, but some nouns and verbs inherently require/never take an article.

This is a question I've been asking myself a lot lately. My initial assumption (can be totally wrong; it's just a guess) was that there was some property of nouns (let's call it "genericness") much like gender or quantifiability.

Basically, gender isn't the only way languages split nouns. When a native speaker of a language learns nouns, they automatically learn the gender and other properties of the noun like "quantifiability". For instance, would you say "I want a sugar"? No, because we learned as babies that the noun "sugar" in English is "uncquantifiable". Although gender is often seen as a super difficult and arbitrary topic, there are many other arbitrary ways languages split nouns.

My thought was that Spanish also had each noun store a "genericness" which determines whether or not the noun takes the definite article when generic. I hypothesized that there were 3 types: "always take article", "only take article in subject" and "never take article".

I'm doing some research into that now, so I'll let you know what I turn up.

updated Jul 10, 2017
edited by HackerKing
posted by HackerKing
2
votes

So after some research, here's what I got:

This nifty Spanish guide straight-up notes that "definite article use is notorious [and] varies significantly from region to region". Interestingly enough it also notes that spanish speakers tend to use the definite article much less nowadays than 50 years ago.

Now onto what is actually says (this is me paraphrasing):

Case 1: Spanish doesn't use the definite article but English does
The Spanish definite article is used every time the English definite article is use except in ordinal numbers (ex. "Fernando the 2nd") and certain set adverbial phrases (like "en alta mar" = "on the high seas"). If you see one of these phrases pop up, then note it down.

Case 2: Non-generic nouns
2 definite objects must always use definite articles if they refer to different things. "The sun and moon" = "El sol y la luna)

If 2 definite object refer to the same concept (at the discretion of the speaker/writer), the definite article is omitted ("El misterio y enigma del origen"; here "misterio y enigma" is one concept).

Case 3: Nouns with descriptions Like in English, if a noun is described by a phrase (and often an adjective, though this depends on the adjective), it needs a definite article. ("Hablamos de religión" vs "Hablamos de la religión de los Grecos)

Case 4: Generic nouns
Abstract nouns take the definite article. ("La democracia" = "democracy"). So do substances when talked about in general ("la sangre" = "blood in general").

When a countable noun refers to all members of its class, it takes the definite article and is plural ("los humanos" = all humans; this is because the noun "humano" is countable in Spanish and we are talking about all humans). Sometimes it can be singular, though this is rarer ("el español come paella" = "the Spaniard (talking about spanish people in general) eats paella).

If the noun is the object of a sentence or preposition the definite article may be deleted by some speakers (i.e. it varies by speaker and region)

Exceptions to Case 3 (This is what we really wanted to look at)
In literary texts (and formal speech), generic nouns may lose their definite articles in lists where 2+ generic nouns immediately follow one another. (Ex. "Hombres y mujeres" = "All Men and women").

For uncountable nouns the definite article is often dropped to "mitigate" genericness. (Ex. "Quiero cerveza" because you only want some beer). For countable nouns, if you would in English say "some", the drop the article ("Quiero amigos" = I want some friends). This exception happens when the noun comes after the verb in the sentence. It doesn't matter whether or not it's an object. Only its word order. (Ex. Pasan taxis aquí = Taxis (generic) come by here). HOWEVER, After some verbs (like odiar), generic nouns are forced to take the article.

After prepositions, some speakers (once again up to choice) will drop the articles. This is a modern trend and most "modern" speakers tend to drop the articles (ex. "Escribo sobre poesía

After certain verbs (usually comsuming, desiring, or producing). (Ex. "Por supuesto uso jabón")

updated Jul 10, 2017
edited by HackerKing
posted by HackerKing
Thanks HackerKing. It seems there is much variation, and debate, with article usage even among native Spanish speakers, which may be why they always seem reluctant to answer questions on definite article use when they are normally so helpful elsewhere :) - jellonz, Jan 30, 2015
Either that, or there are just nuances that cannot be explained by "rules" but must instead be picked up case by case. - jellonz, Jan 30, 2015
2
votes

As a Spanish native speaker I only can say that I probably agree with the first post of HackerKing. I think that many of those examples are learnt by hearing, and there are no rules.

I am not able to explain it better because it is so complex for my English.

updated Jul 10, 2017
posted by txustaboy
¡Gracias! Estoy de acuerdo, mucho de lo que aprendemos "naturalmente" se puede explicar con reglas muy complicadas. Tal vez sea mejor no intentar aprenderlas - HackerKing, Feb 1, 2015