Ojalá y "que"

Question

Why is it that I see, over the years, less and less "que", in this expression?

"Ojalá que no hagas eso," "Ojalá no hagas eso."

It's not only that expression, but all/many that contain "Ojalá". It seems to depend upon the speaker/writer.

It's from the moors (pre 1492). I was taught "Ojalá que..." I don't normally hear the word at all except from Peninsular speakers, and they are over 50 years of age (I think). The "que" is much more present in written Spanish.

So which is the more correct?

I do not know what is more correct, but I have been told by (younger) Spaniards that the que is not necessary and that they do not use it typically. - bosquederoble, Dec 23, 2014

Answer 1

I think that this is a trend (a bad one) that happens in language.

To me it is sort of like "he gots" instead of he's "got" Or may be the use of "ain't" and "hain't" and I "seen" him yesterday.

A mí (una española--y todavía bastante joven) something like "Ojalá Pedro me visite mañana." es algo ridículo. No suena bien, y a mi ver, no es nada correcto. Afortunadamente los libros de texto en los E.E.U.U. sí enseñan el uso correcto de "ojalá que"

No todos los latinos usan buena gramática. Yo misma hago mis errores, pero siempre hago el esfuerzo de hablar y escribir correctamente. También He tenido la oportunidad de enseñarles a mis estudiantes latinos lo que es buena y apropiada gramática española.

End of rant.

Very good one too. :) - rac1, Dec 24, 2014

Muy bien dicho. Ojalá que te oigan. - Jubilado, Dec 24, 2014

Language changes; I don't really think you can call language changes "bad". - HackerKing, Dec 24, 2014

From the standpoint of a teacher, whose profession is language learning, there has to be a standard. When the standard changes and the "book" validate it, I will go along with it. However, language tends to degenerate over time. Compare the beauty of the - Daniela2041, Dec 24, 2014

King James version of the Bible with the modern translations. Spanish has also changed, and has lost some of its beauty over the centuries. Compare the exquisitness of Don Quijote with the works of some of the modern writers. The latter may be clearer, - Daniela2041, Dec 24, 2014

but they "ain't as purty" :) - Daniela2041, Dec 24, 2014

Answer 2

Bosque, young people from where?

I am sure in Chile it is used by older as well as yourger people.

As I said, I was told this from younger people from Spain. Total of two. I have not discussed it with peple over forty, or people from other countries- they may say the sam, I was only attesting to what I knew firsthand. - bosquederoble, Dec 24, 2014

Which is specifically two people under forty from Spain. No one else has specifically complained either way, - bosquederoble, Dec 24, 2014

And I do use both,as the mood strikes, but lack of complaints doesn't prove anything. - bosquederoble, Dec 24, 2014

No problem, bosque, I just wanted to know... :) - chileno, Dec 24, 2014

Besides, the fact that I think or don't think doesn't make me an expert. :) - chileno, Dec 24, 2014

Answer 3

My comment was solely based on the firsthand knowledge from asking the question of two Spainards, neither of which were "older". I did not comment on older, or people from other countries that speak Spanish, as I have not asked the question. I use it either way and nobody complains, but people will often not complain, to be polite, unless it damages understandibility.

RAE, the only example I can find lacks que:

http://lema.rae.es/dpd/?key=ojalá

ojalá. Interjección que expresa el deseo de que algo suceda: «Ojalá sea para bien» (MtzSalguero Combate [Bol. 2002]). El acento principal recae en la última sílaba, por lo que debe escribirse siempre como palabra aguda: ojalá.

Diccionario panhispánico de dudas ©2005

Real Academia Española © Todos los derechos reservados

A discussion on the topic:

http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=1144331

Mexico:

Ojalá no vayan

Ojalá que no vayan.

Ninguna diferencia

Same idea by two other Mexicans

A spainard says without que it is formal, with que colloquial

from Argentina:

Both phrases express the same, but there is a very little difference from my point of view: I would use "Ojalá que no" whether at the beginning of a sentence or given as an answer.

I asume he means if/when, not whether, and giving not given.

As I am not a native speaker, I always try to provide where my knowledge is from, or backing references, so that people can judge the validity of what I say.

I think if RAE uses an example without que, and doesn't even comment on it as a controversy, my assumption would be that is generally accepted to do so. I do not know how to find a more generally accepted source, although I know some people argue with the RAE, in my E X P E R I E N C E it is for being too conservative and slow to change, and not the opposite.