Me la llevo

Question

There is an example text in my Spanish textbook that describes how a person is buying things at a department store. One line says "¡Qué ganga! ¡Me la llevo!"

Why is "Me" necessary in the second sentence? I would have just said ¡La llevo!.

Bienvenido amiga , buena suerte . We would like to know more about you .Soy de Australia. - ray76, Nov 26, 2014

Ray, You really are psychic. I went to marahk's profile and "nada" de género. How do you do that?? - Daniela2041, Nov 27, 2014

Answer 1

It's because for this sentence you use ' llevarse' rather than just plain 'llevar'. The two forms of the verb have slightly different meanings, but I think it is easier to just regard ' Me lo llevo' as a set phrase.

i found some helpful definitions of llevarse here: http://spanish.about.com/od/usingparticularverbs/a/llevar.htm - marahk, Jan 31, 2015

including this one: llevarse (algo) — to take (something) — Llévatelo. Take it with you. Quisiera llevarme la flor. I'd like to take the flower with me. - marahk, Jan 31, 2015

Exactly, Marahk. - annierats, Feb 2, 2015

Answer 2

La llevo - I take .

Me la llevo,- I'll take it.

Answer 3

(Me) is being used as a reflexive pronoun (the English equivalent being myself). Why is it necessary? That's just how you convey reflective statements en español. Consider bañar (to bathe). Baño (I bathe). So to say, I bathe every day (baño todos los días) isn't as complete a thought or have quite the same feel as I bathe myself every day ( me baño todos Los días). The question of who is bathed is answered, not just who is doing the bathing. Reflexive verbs are easy to conjugate, because the thing doing the action is also receiving the action. Later on you'll learn indirect object pronouns (IOP), where the IOP is receiving action from something else ( so the verb is congugated to whatever that something is) - ex: me compras (you bought me), which is why comprar (to buy) is congugated in the tú form. Another ex: te miro (te being the tú pronoun and miro yo form from mirar). "Te miro" therefore means I watch you while "me miro (en el espejo)" is reflexive and means I watch myself (in the mirror). Anyways... I think the phrase me la llevo is "I wear it myself". ¡Qué plus any noun! is an exclamation, so ¡qué credo! Means: what a pig! So in your example there is a salesperson going, "what a bargain! I wear/get it myself! If I'm not mistaken, to express a future event, such as I will take, there is specific grammer being: lo llevaré ( I will take it). Just think me llamo...the most famous reflexive of our time.

Yes, but nobody says ' Lo llevaré' even though they ought to. - annierats, Nov 26, 2014

¡Cuidado! "credo" is not "pig" "cerdo" is. Look who's talking! I make more typos than anyone! - Daniela2041, Nov 27, 2014

I love your style, and your ability to condense is amazing! You took what is a 5 page lesson on reflexive verbs and cut it down to one paragraph. Tienes mi voto. - Daniela2041, Nov 27, 2014

Answer 4

"Me la llevo" "me" here means "for myself"

Ergo (Greek for "por eso") "I take eet forr myseelf."

No really great grammar here, just to the point with some fun attached.

Yup, that's what I thought. Voté para ti. - sanlee, Nov 27, 2014

Not really Daniela. I know what you want to say, but "you can take it for yourself" or for your father or for your cousin. This means that you are the person who take it, not much. - txustaboy, Nov 27, 2014

Yes, '' This bottle of wine will be a perfect present for my father, I'll take it'' - annierats, Nov 28, 2014

I think I'm having an English problem here. I can't seem to express the Idea of the emphasis that I (myself) will take it. Oouuugghh! It's still not right! - Daniela2041, Nov 29, 2014

I guess that in English we have to leave the reflexive out of the equation and just say lamely, "I'll take it." - Daniela2041, Nov 29, 2014