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similarity between "passive se" and "reflexive active" sentences

similarity between "passive se" and "reflexive active" sentences

2
votes

Please check my below translations and give me my mistakes:

active sentences:

The mad man told himself nonsense. = El loco se dijo una tontería.

He told himself it. = se la dijo.

Now i want to make a "passive se" structure by "decir":

se la dijo. (i want to use "no-fault se" in this sentence)

which one is correct translation?:

He was said by her. or It was said by her.

2417 views
updated Nov 11, 2014
edited by arnoldsg72
posted by arnoldsg72
I t was said by her. But this not common. She said it, is the common construction. - annierats, Nov 9, 2014
I mean in English. I don't understand what you mean by no fault, in this instance. - annierats, Nov 9, 2014
I think "He was told by her" is what is meant. to say and to tell are often confused. - ian-hill, Nov 9, 2014
WE have no idea of the langauges this member understands because there is NO SD profile. - ian-hill, Nov 9, 2014
Yes, that would help a lot. That's the reason we ask members to fill out their profile. - rac1, Nov 9, 2014

14 Answers

4
votes

I'm having a problem understanding your first sentence. "He was said by her." Could you put that some other way so I can understand?

"Se la dijo" doesn't mean any of what you said. In fact I don't understand it all.

"Se lo dijo ella" would be: She told it to herself. "Se lo dijo él" would be: He told it to himself.

Did this help, or did I mess it up even more for you?

updated Nov 9, 2014
edited by Daniela2041
posted by Daniela2041
By the way your first sentence is OK. - Daniela2041, Nov 8, 2014
I think this is very helpful, Daniela. - annierats, Nov 9, 2014
4
votes

The construction "Se me perdió la llave." is a way of avoiding taking the blame. It's like "The key got lost" " It's literally "the key lost itself to me" Cool, huh? How about Se me olvidó su nombre. (instead of the more honest "Olvidé su nombre) The first one is the "Your name slipped my mind" (names can be slippery) rather than the more honest "I forgot your name.

Re: the "se lo dijo a él (or a ella) ¡Ay,chihuahua! this is kinda hard. First of all the "se" represents "le" (to him OR her) Spanish does not permit "le lo" for euphonic reasons. (Besides that, It doesn't sound too good, LOL) Now follow this:

If it were "le lo dijo" the "le" could mean "to him" or "to her" The "lo" means "it" something said--not specific like a tonteríia. Now if we don't put in a CLARIFIER like "a él or a ella)

Whoor what does the "se" which represents "le" mean. With "Se lo dijo" you have that somebody said 'it" to somebody else. Now suppose you have a situation where someone says"

¿Pablo le dijo a María que hay un león en la calle?" Pablo told María that there's a lion in the street?? (note the redundant "le" in the question, yes, it's required) the answer would be"

Sí, amigo él-(understood) se lo dijo a ella. Yes, friend, he said it to her. the "a ella" here is really not needed because you have a clear antecedent --María. but I use it just to emphasize. If María had not been previously mentioned, then you would HAVE to put in the "a ella" I don't know just how much background you have in Spanish, because it seems you haven't learned about Spanish direct and indirect pronouns. I would recommend the Fluencia course if you haven't gotten to this level of grammar'

I have tried to condense down for you a two week section of my Spanish class into several long paragraphs. I hope you understand some of the terminology.

Good luck, amigo.

updated Nov 9, 2014
posted by Daniela2041
Great answer! Very helpful. :) - rac1, Nov 9, 2014
El chileno doesn't like it. Maybe I didn't explain it properly. My teacher training taught me to explain things from the standpoint of an English speaker. Maybe someone else can do it better. Ay! - Daniela2041, Nov 9, 2014
I know, that's why I am trying to explain there isn't such a thing as a "no fault" blah blah. It isn't a matter of me liking it or not, just to make it less confusing. Simple. - chileno, Nov 9, 2014
I think none of us are understanding the question, at least I don't. - annierats, Nov 9, 2014
3
votes

I am sorry Daniela, but this nonsense about no fault it's faulty at best. smile

Se perdieron la llaves = las llaves están perdidas = The keys are lost

Somebody lost them (known or unknown, right?

Se me perdieron... it was me..

Se te perdeiron ... it was you

etc...

So what's this about no fault people talk about??????????

Edit:

Se me perdio la llave. (I can't get the accents to work) this is like " the key GOT LOST" It's avoiding blame. It would be more honest to say : Perdi la llave. I lost the key.

If anything "se me perdió la llave" would thanslate literally "I got the keys lost" which would be translated as "the keys got lost by me"

The keys got lost = se perdieron las llaves - the keys cannot get lost by themselves, hence someone must have done it.

again, please don't teach that "no fault/guilt" stuff. smile

updated Nov 11, 2014
edited by chileno
posted by chileno
Check out the first sentence under my picture. Se me perdio la llave. (I can't get the accents to work) this is like " the key GOT LOST" It's avoiding blame. It would be more honest to say : Perdi la llave. I lost the key. - Daniela2041, Nov 9, 2014
English speakers do this all the time as well. - Daniela2041, Nov 9, 2014
Check my edit please. - chileno, Nov 9, 2014
I don't think it is a direct pronoun 'me' but rather an indirect one, which is also 'me' , but the translation distinguishes the two, and the correct translation would be 'it lost itself to me'- you can also distinguish that by saying 'a mi se me perdio.' - norsh, Nov 9, 2014
Please answer the OP's questions without criticizing someone else's answers. Chileno, I'm surprised at you. - rac1, Nov 9, 2014
Me too. - ian-hill, Nov 9, 2014
Chileno, I don' want to critisize anybody, but the question is not clear and I think all the answers deal with another matter entirely, but I have probably misunderstood. - annierats, Nov 9, 2014
It sin;t an ill criticism. I hope people drop that nonsense because it add more to the confusion. That's all. - chileno, Nov 9, 2014
2
votes

He was said by her

Maybe should be

She said to him ".... "

which will be followed by "reported" speech.

And have a look here

**Note that the tense of the verb 'to say' in English is expressed in the preterite and acts as a past participle while the verb "to be" is added. This use reflects a passive construction, and many times this use of "se" can be confused with the passive "se."*

These are not my words.

updated Nov 9, 2014
posted by ian-hill
Good information. :) - rac1, Nov 9, 2014
2
votes

This link will help to explain about the "No fault" construction.

Impersonal "se" and Passive "se"

updated Nov 9, 2014
posted by rac1
:) - ian-hill, Nov 9, 2014
1
vote

"la" points to "una tontería". I used "la" as a direct object pronoun for an inanimate feminine noun. "la" means "it" if the object is not a feminine person.

updated Nov 11, 2014
edited by arnoldsg72
posted by arnoldsg72
1
vote

Se la dijo? Im having a hard time understanding what youi wrote

updated Nov 11, 2014
posted by Rey_Mysterio
This is called "laismo", common in the middle north of Spain. - txustaboy, Nov 11, 2014
1
vote

Just to confuse things futher - my contribution.

Se me han extraviado las gafas.

My glasses have disappeared. smile Not my fault.

I mislaid my glasses. My fault.

He perdido mis gafas.

My glasses mislaid themselves. smile Not my fault.

Mis gafas se extravían.

I lost my glasses. My fault.

Perdí mis gafas.

My glasses got lost. smile not my fault.

Mis gafas se perdieron.

My glasses were mislaid. smile not necessarily my fault

Mis gafas han sido extraviados.

updated Nov 11, 2014
edited by ian-hill
posted by ian-hill
:):) - rac1, Nov 9, 2014
Yes, but the question is about talking to oneself, it haws nothing to do with mislaying things, as far as I see it??? I'm totally lost on this one! - annierats, Nov 9, 2014
No nothing at all to do with losing anything - that is not the point of my post. - ian-hill, Nov 9, 2014
It is about saying something happened which is or is not one's fault. - ian-hill, Nov 9, 2014
Talking to oneself does´t exist in Spanish, you talk to yourself in third person - txustaboy, Nov 11, 2014
1
vote

wow!!! how much answers! Thanks to all!

I wanted classify my questions. maybe in some questions yes or no is enough for me.

1- how can i say: "He told himself it" ?

Daniela translated: "Se lo dijo él" or maybe: "Se lo dijo a él" . I don't understood which one do you mean?

annierats translared: "Se lo dijo a si mismo"

which one is correct?

2- Daniela wrote: se lo dijo a ella. = he said it to her. "se" is fake se. (changed from "le lo")

Suppose there is a background of story that who is he (for example i know he is a mad man) then I make this sentence:

"se lo dijo"

According to spanishdict dictionary: decirse (pronominal verb) 1. to say to oneself

So i can translate above sentence such as: "he said it to himself"

Now I forget "the mad man story" and I use Daniela view for translating: he said it to him/her.

Therefore can i say: "se lo dijo" has two translation according to situation.

3- Is direct object pronoun "la" just for "a feminine person"? or "la" can be used for "feminine noun" in general?

4- Please forget the sentence: "He was said by her." focus in this sentence: "It was said by her"

Imagine this scenario:

The brother of my friend has died in an accident. I and my wife are aware of this accident but my friend doesn't know. we decide not to inform him for some reasons. But accidentally my friend hear this news behind the door. My wife get angry and ask me: "Why did you tell this news to your friend?" I answer: "This is not my fault, the awareness of this subject occurred by himself although I told that"

So with this background i make this sentence:

"It was said by me" = "se me dijo"

or similar above one: "It was said by him" = "se le dijo"

are these sentence correct?

updated Nov 11, 2014
edited by arnoldsg72
posted by arnoldsg72
No es culpa mia.. The rest I can't quite follow... - annierats, Nov 9, 2014
Annie is right. I got off on another track. Se lo dijo a si mismo. Good job. (My accents aren't working again.) - Daniela2041, Nov 11, 2014
1
vote

Lo de hablar con si mismo se llama habla privada.

I don't understand the question properly.

I think you have to clarify by saying ` asi mismo'.

Se lo dijo a si mismo. He told himself( it, whatever it was). Do you see what I mean?

Se lo dijo asi mismo que habrá de dejar las llaves en el coche. ( He told himself that he must have left the keys in the car). This example is made up by me and may therefore be faulty, please beware.

updated Nov 11, 2014
posted by annierats
Not faulty at all. - Daniela2041, Nov 11, 2014
1
vote

What a silent topic!!! smile

updated Nov 10, 2014
posted by arnoldsg72
Have you looked at the links provided? They may shed some light on the subject. :) - rac1, Nov 10, 2014
1
vote

In respect of your latest question I think:

"It was said by me" = "se me dijo" No. Lo dije yo. "It was said by him" = "se le dijo" No. él lo dijo.

The 'it' here is the ' lo'.

updated Nov 9, 2014
posted by annierats
Perhaps put up anew question, thi is getting a bit hard to follow. - annierats, Nov 9, 2014
Your spanish sentences are correct. but they have not the exact concept of my sentences. I want to use "no-fault se" or "accidental se" for "decir". - arnoldsg72, Nov 9, 2014
1
vote

I think I've understood the question!

Se dice normally means : it is said, an impersonal statement.

Example: Se dice que los italianos son los mejores amantes.-- It is said that Italians are the best lovers. ( We don't know who says this, a general statement commonly accepted as truth).

Se dice que hemos superado la crisis económica--. It is said that we have overcome the economic crisis.

This is nothing to do with talking to oneself. Ex: El ladrón estaba hablando asi mismo.-- The crook was talking to himself. Yo me dije a mi mismo que debería llamar a la policía. -- I said to myself that I ought to call the police . ( this normally indicates reflextion, thinking aloud)

updated Nov 9, 2014
posted by annierats
I've now been thinking on this whilst I've cleaned all the floors in the house so some good has come of it. Thank you Arnold! - annierats, Nov 9, 2014
Me too. :) - rac1, Nov 9, 2014
1
vote

Thank you Daniela,

Your answer was usefull. But it caused to another question. I used "la" because "tontería" is female noun and i've heard there are little neutre noun in Spanish. But according to your example if the object is non-person i should use "lo" without considering gender.

It is very wonderfull using el or ella in the end of sentence. What is the role of el or ella in sentence? Is it object? Can i use them in the begining of sentence? Are they used just for clarify gender of "se"?

If an unknown person told to him something. I use this sentence:" he was said" but if i want to say who told that (by keeping that structure) i say: " he was said by herself" meaning: " she said him". I found like this structure in spanish for example: "se perdió el libro" and "se me perdió el libro". And i wanted to use this structure for "decir" verb.

updated Nov 9, 2014
posted by arnoldsg72