'Si le pasa\pase algo'

Question

Why is it 'si le pasa algo (a ella) ' and not the subjunctive 'si le pase algo' ?

Answer 1

That sentence can be writed in many ways:

Si le pasa algo

Si le pasara algo

Si le pasase algo

There are no great differences of meaning between the three sentences. Maybe the difference is the probability of anything happens, but this are the kind of sentence that you only can learn to choose, living in a Spanish speaker country.

But, I repeat, the three mean the same (more or less).

Answer 2

The indicative is used in a positive ' si sentence' in the present . The past subjunctive can be used, as txustaboy says. ( If he were to pass her something)

thank you both for the information! I am still wondering why it isn't 'si le pase algo'. As you would say 'pase lo que pase' using the subjunctive and not 'pasa lo que pasa'. Is it only because of the positive 'si'? so would you say 'si no le pase...' ? - norsh, Nov 7, 2014

In the Spansh textbooks used in the US for English -speaking students they give the general RULE. It's sort of abitrary, but it is: when you introduce an "if" clause as in "if something happens to him/her, use the present tense. "si le pasa algo..." while - Daniela2041, Nov 8, 2014

(continjing) while the other kind of construction does not use the "si" WHY??? No lo sé. Lo siento. - Daniela2041, Nov 8, 2014

As annirats said the past subjunctive is OK, but let's take the easy way first.--Dani. - Daniela2041, Nov 8, 2014