Pronoun order revisited
I am going to count this as a separate question, as I am going to completely reformulate it, even though it is going after the same underlying idea as the last question I asked.
In English, "You gave me to Juan" or "I gave you to Juan" are perfectly grammatical sentences. Even though presumably nowadays one person can't give another to a third.
My question is would you say those sentences in Spanish as (Multiple choice here, but if more than one are correct, pick more than one):
1- Le me diste a Juan y Le te di a Juan. (RID order, like Se lo diste a Juan= You gave it to Juan)
2- Me le diste a Juan y te le di a Juan. (Setemelelo order- or whatever you want to call it)
3- Le diste a mí a Juan y le di a ti a Juan. (avoids having to choose an order; I am leaning to this right now)
4- Other formulation of your choice.
5-They are silly sentences trying to explore an unimportant grammatical point and I should give it up.
2 Answers
In my mind only #1 is correct if you are communicating the English sentences given.
In #3 I think, but am not certain, that the personal "a" is only used with the indirect direct object. So this formula doesn't work. But this works if you use the noun for the direct object. For example: Le diste a Sara a Juan. You gave Sara to Juan.
I am not a native speaker. But you helped me so I am trying to help you. Or confuse you more. Who knows.
OK Bosque...
me diste a Juan = you gave me john
te di a Juan. = I gave you to john
Se lo diste a Juan= You gave it to Juan)
(Me) le diste a Juan = You gave John something...(I don't like that "me" in there, although some people talk like that, to me is wrong)
le di a Juan. = I gave John something.
le di (a mí) a Juan = I gave me to John
le di a ti a Juan. = I gave you to John
You need a conversation with me on Skype...
You are making it more difficult for yourself.
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