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"ayudarme" y "saludame"

"ayudarme" y "saludame"

2
votes

Apprende Espanol para hablar con mi esposa, y solo con spanishict.com y una dictionario. Toda via es confundo por sentencias y palabas como estos arriba. Como el primero es otro persona accion a me,como "ayudame por favor" y el segundo es mi accion para el otro persona como"hola y saludame la esposa". Espero que mi espanol es claro suficiente.

1739 views
updated Jun 1, 2014
posted by awhala
¡Buena suerte! - Jubilado, May 22, 2014
Buena suerte :) It's confusing at first because it's the same pronoun for a variety of different situations but don't worry, practice is all it takes to get the hang of it. - Manity, May 22, 2014
Please fill out your profile so we may better help you . Bienvenido y buena suerte. - ray76, May 24, 2014

4 Answers

0
votes

I understand your confusion, as the second construct is new to me too, but I´ll try to offer an explanation.

One problem is that ¨me¨ can be a reflexive pronoun (Yo me lavo las manos sin ayuda después de recuperarme) -- or an object pronoun -- Ayúdame por favor. Or -- Él va a ayudarme

The first case is pretty straightforward and is an object pronoun. The ¨me¨ is just like English´s ¨me¨ here. Help me. He is going to help me. This, and the reflexive case are by far the two more common examples of using ¨me¨, and you appear to have enough level to understand both of those pretty well. I´m just trying to help crystallize that before moving on.

Now, your second case is much less familiar to me. It may even be idiomatic, at least partially, because as you´ve supposed, the ¨me¨ is normally going the ¨other direction¨, basically To You, whether from someone else with you as the object, or to yourself, reflexively. I´´ve more often seen something like ¨Salúdale de mi parte¨ or ¨Salúdala de mi parte¨ (do´t worry about le vs la there, as there are regional and generational differences in le vs la)

I asked my old Spanish prof, and she indicated Sáludame a la esposa etc was common enough speech, but colloquial and not preferred.

She said she´d prefer to use Manda saludos a...

. or something like (I can´t quite recall) ¨darles saludos a¨

In any event, just remember the first cases are far more common and a good way to understand the use of ¨me¨ and treat the second one as irregular-exceptional-idomatic. You could get by fine never using that exact construction.

For what it´s worth, though not needed or formal, it doesn´t appear rare. I saw a movie at Cine las Americas called ¨Sáludame al Diego¨

updated Jun 1, 2014
posted by rogspax
4
votes

"Ayúdame, por favor" is like "help me, please" in English, that means that you are asking someone to help you. And "salúdame a tu esposa" means that you want someone to say hello to his wife for you.

updated May 24, 2014
edited by agusmarin7
posted by agusmarin7
2
votes

First of all:

Estoy aprendiendoespanol para hablar con mi esposa, y solo con spanishdict.com y una dictionario. Todavía es confuso por oraciones y palabas como estos arriba. Como el primero me dice "ayudame por favor" y el segundo es mi accion para el otro persona como "hola y saludame la esposa". Espero que mi espanol sea suficiente claro. (flip "claro suficiente")

Also I don't know know what you mean with "el segundo es mi accion para el otro persona como" and also alot of these words need accents but I'll assume that you already know and just wrote this quickly.

Now: Ayúdame por favor=please help me Hola y salúdame la esposa=hello and greet my wife(Something like this)

updated May 22, 2014
edited by Colin4312
posted by Colin4312
0
votes

My spanish sucks. It may be my sucky english thats messing me up. I get what they mean but cant apply the idea anywhere else because . With the former (meanning the first I mentioned(primero). I am asking someone else to take action to me ayudame, its me beingnhelped, makes sense. Whereas in the second ( segundo(meaning the second phrase I mentioned ) I am the one taking action through them to another.saludame, its not me being greeted. Seems almost counter productive to add me to the end when I can just conjugate the verb for me and had to mention the other party in the first place, and the use does not indicate me as the receiver as in the first. I am unable to establish in my mind a rule for application of adding "me" to the end of a verb. At this rate it'll take me seven years to learn where to put "me" if applicable , at the end of a verb,and who its verb is referencing by memorization. Where as with a gramatic rule I can begin to apply this method of use immediately in approproiate situations. I hope that was clear, cause thats my best english , seeing as im redneck and all.

updated May 24, 2014
edited by awhala
posted by awhala