Haberles insultado

Question

Aquí tengo una frase que me hace dudar: "después de haberles insultado". ¿Por qué "les" en lugar de un pronombre de complemento directo? ¿Es un error o así se usa el verbo insultar?

Gracias y por favor corríjanme si cometo errores.

good question - 00b055e0, May 14, 2014

Sorry manity, I misunderstood the question. - annierats, May 14, 2014

Answer 1

Es un error, debería ser "después de haberlos insultado" pero incluso entre hispanohablantes se cometen muchos errores con el objeto directo e indirecto, en algunas zonas o países cometen "leísmo" (como en este caso), en otras "laísmo". Pero la forma correcta en este caso es usando el objeto directo.

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Thanks! - annierats, May 14, 2014

Very helpful, thanks! - Manity, May 14, 2014

good answer - 00b055e0, May 14, 2014

Answer 2

Después de is often followed by the infinitive..

The equivalent English ( after having insulted them) is in the gerund.

I think you can attach the pronoun to the infinitive without any problems in these cases.

Please note that my understanding of grammar is not good, but the sentence sounds fine to me.

Annie, I have no problem with the infinitive or where to put the pronoun but with the fact it's "les" and not "los/las". - Manity, May 14, 2014

:) - 00b055e0, May 14, 2014

It's called ' leísm' and means you just say le o les instead of los...I'm in favour, it elimantes choosing, I believe it's incorrect but so common it's correct, if you see what I mean. - annierats, May 14, 2014

That was my suspicion, thanks! :) - Manity, May 14, 2014

thank u Annie .. thats what I have been wondering all along .. - 00b055e0, May 15, 2014

Answer 3

Hi Manity,

The verb insultar is a transitive verb and technically it takes a direct object ... for example ... he insulted Ana (Ana is a direct object) ,, él insultó a Ana ... now if we replace Ana with the object pronoun .. it will be .. He insulted her or él la insultó (direct object pronoun) .. pero he notado muchas veces y en muchos casos que se usan los objetos indirectos en lugar de objetos directos por razones que no puedo entender nada .. como por ejemplo .. voy a llamarles mañana ... (I am going to call u tomorrow) ... en mi punto de vista debería ser "voy a llamarlos mañana" porque las personas las que me estoy referiendo acå son objetos directos de mi frase porque voy a llamar Ana y Berta (por ejemplo) I am calling Ana and aberta (for example) so they should be the direct objects .. but yet many natives use indirect object pronouns with llamar and many other verbs (where logically the direct object pronoun should be used) ... he sido preguntando esto a mucha gente pero nadie me podía dar una explicación apropiada y adecuada ... pero basado en mi propio sentido común ... based on my own common sense ,, one way of looking at this could be ... I am going to (make a call) to you tomorrow .. where call is now the direct object and you becomes the indirect object .. because we are making a "call" and we are making the call "to" you(Ana y Berta) ..... but in the cass of your sentence this logic doesnt apply so I think the cirrect way to say it should be .. despues los haber insultado or después haber insultådolos .. it seems an error to me or just a native stylistic approach (perhaps) .. but my friend .. I am not atall an expert so perhaps some one else may be able to give u a better explication .. take care .. regards ..

Yep, we think the same here. - Manity, May 14, 2014

Yes Manity, i agree with Spanishskypeorg .. I have also observed the natives using too much of le a and les .. even in some books ... it is good u brought that up .. - 00b055e0, May 14, 2014