¡Como no he de quererte, ciudad mía!
This is part of a poem.
"Haber de" is used to express obligation. So this says?
How could I not love you my city.
Still just a part of the poem. Here is the paragraph that is printed on a wall here in La Paz.
¡Como no he de quererte, ciudad mía! si mi primer amor fue serenata que recorrió tu malecón un día teñido de crepúsculo escarlata.
Thank you Moe for the reference to this work by Armando Trasviña.
4 Answers
Exactly! But since "ciudad" is femenine, it should say "Cómo no he de quererte, ciudad míA"
¡Hola!, gringojrf:
In his book,....., the line is printed this way:
¡ Como no he de quererte, ciudad mía !
The line opens and closes with exclamation marks, there is no tilde over the first "o" in "como" and there is a comma between "quererte and "ciudad."
I think these items give the line a slightly different meaning than the one you have asked about. If the first word of the line were "Cómo", with a tilde, then the line and sentence should open and close with question ( ¿ ? ) marks. The word as written in the line in the book is more likely to be, in English, "as" but not "how". You pointed out that "haber de" expresses obligation. Does "como no" (no tilde) also have an idomatic meaning.
I wonder if the line says:
"As (or, since) I have to love you, my city"!
Not much different from what you wrote. And I sure didn't understand the next three lines of the poem. What do you think??
Saludos/Best regards,
Moe
Like:
How shall I not love you.
Can that be used? Maybe Ian that is/was an English teacher can help with this.
Hmmm, could "shall" be used instead of "could"? - chileno 4 hrs ago
Come on people!!!!!!!!!!! :-D