Me encanta
Why it is me encanta instead of me encanta do lo for the McDonald commercial
4 Answers
In the sentence "me encanta" the subject is "it" and the object is "me" -
So instead of "I'm loving it", it is closer in actual structure to "It enchants me"
Since the subject pronoun is frequently dropped in Spanish, especially so when it is a nebulous concept, it is simply "me encanta"- "(it) enchants me"
(Think in the vein of "hace sol"- it makes sun (it is sunny)- you would never put a subject pronoun in there in Spanish.)
Which conceptually matches the "I'm loving it" concept, keeping in mind that translations of a complete concept is better than literal word for word translation.
¡Hola!, Roz:
When we conjugate verbs in the the 3rd person singular, that conjugation is good for "he/she & it". For that reason, "me encanta" (3rd person singular present tense can mean "I'm loving him/her/it".
Also, I looked at the definition of "it" in my Collins online Eng--->Span dictionary. You can see that page here ----> Page for "it". What I saw there is that as the subject of a sentence, "it" is often not translated and as the indefinite subject of a sentence, it is not translated. To me, this indicates that "me encanta" works, as it is, to say "I'm loving it".
Saludos/Regards,
Moe
Before I answer this question ,, let me tell u some thing that may stupefy u for a moment ... the english slogan "I am loving it" is grammatically incorrect ,, because" to love "is a stative verb (which describes the state of being in love or liking some one or some thing) and the progressive(the ing form) is never used with stative verbs (against the english grammar rules) .. so one can say ,, I love the burger ,, but one cant say ,, I am loving the burger,, u can say I like this girl ,, u cant say ,, I am liking this girl (because like is also a stative verb),,,, now talking about spanish, the verb gustar, encantatr etc do not function as stative verbs as such because they work the other way around ,,the action of the verb flows in the opposite direction (in comparison to their english counterparts) ,, for example ,, esta película me encanta mucho ,, would not mean that I like that movie or I love that movie ,, but would mean that this movie enchants me ( or this movie is making me feel enchanted ) ,, so the movie here becomes the subject and I become the object (contrary to how it would be in English) so the logic why the progressive should not be used here is not the same as what I explained you for english above ,, it is just that in spanish the progressive is much limited in scope in comparison to english (in english it has a much wider spectrum of use ,, like we can even use the progressive as a noun ,, for example reading, eating etc.which cant be done in spanish) ..in spanish progressive is used mostly only for actions happening right at the moment ,, for example in english u would say ,, I am living in this house ,, but in spanish would say ,, vivo en esta casa ,, o he vivido en esta casa hace dos años .. now in the case of your mcdonalds example I dont think it would be gramatically incorrect to say me está encantando .. or me estå encantando or está encanádome but as it is just a slogan and not something that is really taking place at the time (realtime) it just sounds more natural to say me encanta ,,, and u cant use lo because lo is a direct object pronoun and there is no direct object in this sentence ,, the item the person on the TV commercial is eating is the subject (based on the reverse flow logic I explained u above) and the person who is eating the burger himself is an indirect object (and is thus using the indirect object pronoun to denote himself "me")so there is no it here ,, because what is "it" in english has become the subject in spanish.
Grammar can be tricky at times .. dont worry ,, u will get it with time and practice .. best of luck ..
I am loving all of the above comments. 
