Another pronoun question.
2
votes
The sentence: "No te voy a solapar"
The translation (by context): "I'm not going to cover for you."
So...the pronoun "te"...why isn't it attached to the infinitive? Could it be attached to the infinitive (no voy a solaparte) and still have the sentence mean the same thing?
900 views
updated Apr 11, 2014
posted by AcercaCielo
2 Answers
2
votes
Yes the pronoun can be attached to the infinitive. I think it makes more sense as this is the "active" verb. However, very few native speakers do this. Rather they say it exactly how you wrote it. Go figure. Give me the power and I will make Spanish a lot simpler. lol.
updated Apr 11, 2014
posted by gringojrf
I grant you the power. Go forth and simplify! And thank you for the response. - AcercaCielo, Apr 11, 2014
1
vote
I agree completely with gringojrf. Wanting to put the te after the infinitive makes more sense to an English speaker, but is actually not so common among native speakers.
updated Apr 11, 2014
edited by mattvd
posted by mattvd
I am learning a lot about pronoun placement by watching a telenovela with subtitles. I'm learning a lot of Mexican slang, too! Thank you for your response. - AcercaCielo, Apr 11, 2014
