Direct and Indirect Objects (and pronouns)
Well, I do understand the concept and meaning of direct and indirect objects and pronouns and know how to differentiate between them, however in Spanish I have noticed that some times what seems to be a direct object of the subject is treated as an indirect object .. Example : a mí no me engañas (you can't fool me), now here it seems so going with the english logic that me should be a direct object receiving the action of cheating (engañar) but the way it is used in this sentence it seems to have been treated as an indirect object and me seems to have been used here in the capacity of an indirect object pronoun as opposed to DOP ,, So I am rendered completely confused because in english we will say ,, you can't cheat/fool me.. (so me is a direct object as per the english logic). IS THERE SOME DIFFERENCE between the english and spanish logic when it comes to the meaning and scope of direct and indirect objects. THANKS IN ADVANCE.
1 Answer
Have a look in these SD reference articles
You will have to scroll through them to find what you need.
As you have not completed any of the SD video lessons I suggest you do that before asking anymore questions.