Preterit vs Imperfect with same English translation
I am currently using the Berlitz Learning system basically because it was affordable. I've noticed that their translation of the Imperfect tense is almost always the exact same as the Preterit. Here is an example:
Usabámos translates to 'we used', but should it not be "we used to use"? I was wondering if this is a mistake or if perhaps the Imperfect is more frequently used and so they present it as the dominant translation?
1 Answer
Yes, you're right usábamos could be translated as 'we used to use' but in other situations you could use the same translation as the preterite, 'we used'.
Even when the translations are the same however the meanings won't be.
The preterite freezes and action in the past, encapsulates it as it were, marks the spot on the time line where something happened or was completed.
The imperfect on the other hand is like taking an action that is presently happening and putting it back in the past. For this reason it's good to describe habitual actions or to speak about a past action as it was developing.
So 'usó mi celular'. = I used my telephone. (a one off event)
But 'mientras usaba mi celular' = While I used (was using) my phone .... (describes the action in development, more often than not setting the scene for another action that usually is represented by the preterite.
