Confirmation please
I have just started my journey on the subjunctive and I think I have noticed one thing. Regular AR verbs have the exact same conjugation in the past subjunctive as they do in the future. Can someone confirm if I am correct or not ?
3 Answers
No, that's not quite true. I think you are a little confused (understandably), since the third person singular of the past subjunctive is "hablara" and the future is "hablará"
However, these are the full conjugations for regular AR verbs:
Past Subjunctive
- (Yo)Hablara
- (Tú)Hablaras
- (Él/Ella/Usted)Hablara
- (Nosotros)Habláramos
- (Ellos/Ustedes)Hablaran
Future:
- (Yo)Hablaré
- (Tú)Hablarás
- (Él/Ella/Usted)Hablará
- (Nosotros)Hablaremos
- (Ellos/Ustedes)Hablarán
Notice the difference in pronunciation (shown by the accent marks), and also the difference in the spellings of the first-person singular and plural forms.
I hope not because I just checked "hablar" and I see "hablara" and "hablare."
I believe they are but the subjunctive is something that shtill scares the hell out of me.