"Ya se ve" or "Ya se veo"?

Question

I read the following dialogue.

A: Ahora estoy muy feliz. (I am very happy now.)

B: Ya se ve. ( I can see that.)

I have two questions about Sentence B.

(1) Why does B answer "Ya se ve" instead of "Ya se veo"?

(2) Does "ya" mean "already" in Sentence B, but it doesn't have to be used in the Perfect Tense? And does "ya" imply "I can tell how happy you are before you tell me"?

Answer 1

Ya se ve. ( I can see that.)

Ya se ve = it is visible already/it can be seen already

Ya veo = I (already) see

"Ya se veo" is wrong

Would that help?

Yes, it helps. I think its translation misled me. If it were translated as yours, I wouldn't be so confused. One more question, do you mean "Ya se veo" doesn't exist in any context? - joygogo, Oct 12, 2013

exactly, it does not exist in any context. - chileno, Oct 12, 2013

How about "Ya lo/la veo"? Is it an acceptable expression? I am learning about Direct Objects and Indirect Objects, and they confuse me a lot. - joygogo, Oct 13, 2013

Answer 2

Se ve is an impersonal phrase, so instead of saying 'I' can see, it really means 'one can see' or it's obvious

Ahora and ya are sometimes interchangeable but ahora is 'now' whereas 'ya' although it can be translated as now is probably closer to 'already'.

Hola, Kiwi-Girl. Thanks for your answer. This is the first time I hear about using an impersonal phrase to make a response. Is such a usage very common in Spanish? - joygogo, Oct 12, 2013