Casarse - Imperfect Subjunctive

Question

In the sentence "El matrimonio de la famosa actriz fue anulado menos de 48 horas después de que se casara." Why is the verb casarse in the imperfect subjunctive? Isn't the sentence just stating a fact?

I was searching around, and I found this thread -- http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/108867/por-qu-se-usa-el-subjuntivo-con-despus-de-que-si-hablamos-del-pasado - NikkiLR, Oct 9, 2013

If Gabriel García Márquez uses the indicative in this construction (according to Nikki's link) that's good enough for me. - Jubilado, Oct 10, 2013

Answer 1

"........después de que se casara." is correct. It is stating a fact but the word order "de que" uses subjunctive following. It would be the same construction with "antes" ie: Antes de que se casaran, viajaron por todos lados.

To say this without subjunctive, ie: "El matrimonio de la famosa actriz fue anulado menos de 48 horas después de casarse."

If Gabriel García Márquez uses the indicative in this construction (according to Nikki's link) that's good enough for me. - Jubilado, Oct 10, 2013

Answer 2

Right Chaps, armed with your answers I looked at this again - and my best shot is as follows:

Technically speaking when después de que relates to past events you use the indicative. But to modern Spanish ears this sounds very stilted, and the subjunctive is usually used instead.

Same as: In English it is technically incorrect to end a sentence with a preposition. So, to be correct we need to say "The person for whom I voted". And who says that these days? We would say "The person who I voted for."

That "not ending a sentence with a preposition" is a hold over from Latin Grammar. The use of phrasal verbs in English makes not ending a sentence with a preposition something "up with which I will not put". - Jubilado, Oct 10, 2013

Answer 3

This is one of those, that's just the way it is things, technically despues de que should be followed by the subjunctive for as yet unfulfilled events, and indicative for fulfilled events.

But more often than not to the ears of the hispanohablante the subjunctive just sounds better even for fulfilled events in the past.

The other option as JC pointed out is when If the subject of both verbs is the same, then despues de que can be replaced by despues de + an infinitive.

Answer 4

se caso' past. va a casarse, future. se esta casando. present.

"Casado" instead of "cansando"? - Winkfish, Jun 2, 2015

Answer 5

For the sake of helping non-native speakers learn Spanish, the indicative makes more sense, however for Spanish speakers either form is correct. Generally the rule is to use the conjunctive for "unfulfilled events"... and indicative when the event is fullfilled. "El matrimonio fué anulado a menos de 48 horas después de que se casara" seems to break the rule however the marriage was dissolved and technically the event was not fulfilled. If I were to say this sentence I would say "El matrimonio se canceló (ó fué cancelado) después de 48 horas de haberse casado". Here are more examples of correct use of subjunctive form over indicative form:

(No quiero que te vayas) - El dijo que no quería que se fuera. (even if she did go)

(Te llamaré cuando llegue)." Le dije que llamaría cuando llegara. (even if he did arrive and did call).

Here are more examples: - Rodal, Jun 2, 2015

Welcome to SpanishDict. - rac1, Jun 2, 2015

Answer 6

I think it's incorrect also but I'm not sure why either. The marriage was an act that happened in the past and not a hypothetical action in the past. I would have used the preterito in this case.

Answer 7

in Spanish in different countries use different word.

Answer 8

Good question.

My understanding that después de que only requires subjunctive for future acts, which this is not. I agree with you and am confused too.