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Pronunciation of rimel

Pronunciation of rimel

2
votes

Why is there no accent over the "i" in rimel?

937 views
updated Sep 29, 2013
posted by fred3
This is an excellent question. Even Ian-Hill (below) was confused about words that end in "l" being accented on the last syllable. - Jubilado, Sep 29, 2013

2 Answers

1
vote

The word rímel must be accented over the letter i. Check RAE dictionary for rímel. Here. But you'll find it written as rimmel (original trademark that originated the word) or rimel (whitout accent).

Given that the Spanish language depends on La Real Academia Española de la Lengua to establish wether whether a word is well written or not, there are many words that can be written (and actually they are) in different ways through its evolution: since the moment they start being used until the are finally included in the Spanish dictionary as neologisms.

The word clínex is another example. Coming from the trademark Kleenex, it has been being used in spoken language since these paper handkerchiefs first appeared (at least 20 years ago). And it hasn't been included in the RAE dictionary yet.

The most logical approach is to write these words trying to meet present spelling rules anticipating their standardization into the language. But this doesn't always happen and words like rimel (written without accent) remain in the limbo of the misspelled words without being aware of, because they were correct at the beginning.

[Revise my English, please. I got carried away a bit]

updated Sep 29, 2013
edited by RelaxingCup
posted by RelaxingCup
In "...de la Lengua to establish wether a word" change "wether" to whether. Wether is an English word but most people don't know it. It is a castrated ram. - Jubilado, Sep 29, 2013
Also, this is an excellent answer. Thanks! - Jubilado, Sep 29, 2013
Thank you so much for your correction. Now I'll never forget the difference between those two. :D - RelaxingCup, Sep 29, 2013
1
vote

Because the "i" is the penultinate syllable and is therefore emphasised anyway.

updated Sep 28, 2013
posted by ian-hill
But, Spanish normally emphasizes the last syllable when the word ends in a consonant, unless it is an "n" or "s". Is rimel just an exception to the general rule??? - fred3, Sep 28, 2013