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'Ido a...' Necesita he, has hemos etc?

'Ido a...' Necesita he, has hemos etc?

0
votes

Puede escscribir 'ido a' sin una forma perfecto de haber al principio?

Como ¡Ido a ir de compras! = Gone shopping!

Gracias

1489 views
updated Aug 23, 2013
posted by zedoee
I've just made that clarification on a comment in your previous question. - 003492fc, Aug 22, 2013
No, por favor no lo hagas. =) - -cae-, Aug 23, 2013

4 Answers

2
votes

"ido" es el participio, lo cual quiere decir parte, del verbo "ir" o sea, no funciona sin la otra parte (haber). Las dos palabras tienen que estar juntas así para que el verbo sea una sola entidad.

updated Aug 22, 2013
edited by 005faa61
posted by 005faa61
2
votes

No, as the others say, these literal things often don't work. Because we often use ' gone' without it being in the past, if you see what I mean ? It's more in the present. A note on the door saying: Gone shopping actually means I'm shopping just now and not in..

updated Aug 22, 2013
posted by annierats
You three are awesome. Great explanations. - 0095ca4c, Aug 22, 2013
2
votes

For the record:

No. Just saying or writing "ido" has not the meaning itself. Does not work that way in Spanish. I mean: yes, you will be understood but there still will be one word missing. Saludos.

updated Aug 22, 2013
edited by 003492fc
posted by 003492fc
Yes, exactly. - annierats, Aug 22, 2013
0
votes

Just use the simple past (preterite) Fui/fuiste/fue/fuimos/fueron a ....."

updated Aug 22, 2013
posted by gringojrf