They had eaten when the snake "bit them."
I translated a sentence as follows: Habían comido cuando la serpiente les picaron [They had eaten when the snake bit them. I cannot get a translator to agree with me, however. What am I doing wrong? Gracias.
7 Answers
I would use ya habían to emphasize "already eaten" and for a snake bite we use morder rather than picar because as KiwiGirl said, a snake bites with teeth rather than stinging.
And we have a choice of víbora/culebra/sepiente depending on region.
cuando la serpiente les picaron
Well for one thing, how many snakes were there? 1?
And how many people have you conjugated picar for? sing or plural?
Also I believe, given that snake fangs are pretty much teeth, that snakes morder instead of picar.
I am not a native speaker but maybe :
Habían comido cuando la serpiente los mordió.
Ya habían comido cuando la serpiente los mordió
Habían comido cuando los picó/mordió la serpiente. = They were eating when the snake bit them.
Habían comido cuando les picó/mordió(when the agent doing the action is already understood). Learn more about Leismo....
Habían comido cuando les picó/mordió(when the agent doing the action is already understood). Learn more about Leismo.... Papo Paz
Just for those grammar geeks out there ...
I wondered about this myself but was thinking that perhaps this wasn't leismo but rather a case of the indirect object (a body part instead of the human as a whole) being implicitly understood rather than stated.
Lo mordió. It bit him.
Le mordió (el brazo). It but him (on the arm)
I ran the theory past SD's old (as in 'previous' not in years) resident grammarian and he confirmed that this is what happens and it's not a case of leísmo.
¡Gracias, por tu respuesta expansiva!