I Don't Understand the Forumla for Past Perfect (Terms?)

Question

¡Hola! In the lesson I'm studying, there is this formula for Past Perfect (Terms?), and I don't understand it. Below you can see it:

Imperfect Haber + Past Participle

What does "Imperfect Haber" mean?

Answer 1

Go to the Conjugate tab above, type in haber, click on the yellow conjugate button. You will see the Imperfect forms of the verb among all the others. While you're there, learn the present tense forms because they are used with the Present Perfect tense.

In English the Past Perfect is expressed in phrases like: I had answered, they had finished their work. (we often add the word "already" when we use this tense).

See ian-hill's comment:

Spanish uses the verb "haber" in the perfect tenses. Don't get confused because Spanish has 2 verbs that mean "to have": haber and tener. The second one is used to convey the idea of possession.

Good Jubilado - Maybe we could add that Spanish has two verbs for "to have" - Tener and Haber (which is used for the imperfect) - ian-hill, Jun 25, 2013

Your suggestion is good. I just focused on the particular verb in the question, but I will add it in my answer. - Jubilado, Jun 25, 2013

Actually it is English that has several distinctly different verb forms under one name, as does German and some others. - EugenioCosta, Jun 25, 2013

Tener is in origin the Latin tenere. - EugenioCosta, Jun 25, 2013