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Is one of the translations of "que" (no accent) the word "what"?

Is one of the translations of "que" (no accent) the word "what"?

1
vote

Four online and one massive offline dictionary I looked at all omit "what" as a translation for "que" (no accent). Google Translate is the single exception. Minus Google Translate, the only translations given for "que" in all the other references are: that, than, who, whom, which, if, and, whether.

Doing Rosetta Stone, I came across the following sentence (context: mother holding crying toddler):

¡Cuéntame que pasó! = Tell me what happened!

I don´t know how to read that without assuming "que" (no accent) means "what". Yet (except for Google Translate) every reference I have looked at says that "que" (no accent) does not mean "what".

So, either "Google Translate" is right and ALL the other references are wrong....or, there is an understood "it" in between "Cuéntame" and "que" (i.e. "Cúentame (lo) que pasó").....or, Rosetta Stone wrote the sentence wrong and should have made "que" into "qué"......, or, ??????????

6730 views
updated May 7, 2013
posted by Trieltor
The more I reflect, I think there is an understood "it" in there. - Trieltor, May 7, 2013

5 Answers

2
votes

I am almost positive they left out the accent mark. It should be Cuentame. ¿Qué pasó?

If you treat this as one sentence there are two clauses, cuentame, and que pasó. Que paso is dependent on cuentame, and there is no antecedent in the independent clause for que pasó to refer to.

An antecedent is like the thing that is being modified, so in this case whatever "que pasó" refers to is the antecedent. Since it doesn't exist in the sentence, it must be lo que not que. This is just a rule. The exceptions to this are special sentences like que tengas un buen dia which omits the beginning of the sentence but acts as if the beginning were still there.

Que is used to form relative clauses, also known as adjectival clauses. So these clauses must modify a noun of some type (even if it is abstract and genderless). What this basically means is that the relative clause is just a fancy adjective. If the noun is not explicit, that is to say if it is assumed and not written, then you mus use lo que because that gives you something to modify.

updated May 27, 2013
edited by ATuring
posted by ATuring
Cuéntame. - Chyeko, May 7, 2013
2
votes

Without the accent, "que" would mean "that" or "than" in that sentence, which would make no sense -- "Tell me that happened!"

It should be "lo que", as in "¡Cuéntame lo que pasó!" for "Tell me what (that which) happened!"

updated May 27, 2013
posted by cola_jet_set
That´s what it seems like to me, but I don´t know very much at all and have even less experience than knowledge. - Trieltor, May 7, 2013
Estoy de acuerdo, no hay antecedente en la clausuala indepediente que refiere a que pasó, es por eso que tiene que usar "lo que." - ATuring, May 7, 2013
1
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updated May 27, 2013
posted by Rey_Mysterio
1
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Did you check this one?

I know, it isn't a bilingual one, but it will shed some light if you care to read all of it. smile

updated May 27, 2013
posted by chileno
1
vote

It was probably a typo, and should have had an accent. My understanding is that "qué" is used in a question or exclamation, while "que" is used in the indicative form. This is similar to the used of "comó" vs. "como", "quien" vs. "quién", etc.

updated May 27, 2013
posted by DR1960
It seemed that way to me too....or else there is an implied "it" in there. - Trieltor, May 7, 2013