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Do the "preterite" tenses of "to be" verbs ever go together with present particples?

Do the "preterite" tenses of "to be" verbs ever go together with present particples?

8
votes

Forgive me for not knowing all the correct words in discussing grammar. Here´s a sample sentence of "imperfect tense of a to-be verb + present participle":

A las 8 de la mañana, él estaba pescando. At 8 in the morning, he was fishing.

I want to know, rather than the imperfect tense of a to-be verb, is it ever the case where the preterite tense of a to-be verb is used preceding a present participle.

Will I ever encounter the form: "pretertie of to-be + present participle"? For instance, building off the example sentence I used, is there any conceivable sentence which calls for using "...estuvo pescando..."?

EDIT: People throwing around the word "progressive" threw me off. I haven´t heard that word, regarding grammar, since high school. But, I looked it up and refreshed myself a little. For anyone that´s a beginner like me that is interested, this question, according to my internet sleuthing, pertains to what is called the "preterite progressive tense" in Spanish and it does indeed exist (i.e. "preterite of to-be + present participle" exists). About.com has some information on it here: http://spanish.about.com/od/conjugation/a/progressiveverb.htm (scroll down to "preterite progressive"). Thank you to everyone that has been helping with this question.

1773 views
updated May 4, 2013
edited by Trieltor
posted by Trieltor
This is a very good question but it's left us with disagreement between Julianchivi and francobollo. I am now confused about the issue, but I'm voting for eveyone. I hope it gets resolved. - Jubilado, May 4, 2013
Question updated. - Trieltor, May 4, 2013
If my link works, it is all explained.. - annierats, May 4, 2013

6 Answers

4
votes

Estuvieron pescando con nosotros por 5 horas en el río Colorado.

The above example given by pescador1 is totally correct and widely used. The use of the preterite here is not dictated by the present participle that follows it (which is only used to state the progression of the action). The preterite is used to describe an action that started 5 hours ago and ended. Period.

Other examples to illustrate a choice of preterite vs. imperfect.

Estuvo estudiando toda la noche para el examen final. This action started and ended. The night ended and a new day began.

Estaba estudiando para el examen cuando sonó el teléfono. This requires the imperfect to describe two actions that took place simultaneously. No further information is given as to when this action ended. As far as we know, they may still be on the phone.

I hope this helps!

updated May 27, 2013
edited by francobollo
posted by francobollo
Well, it sure helps me. We were't taught that (preterite plus present participle) At All! I would have been money it didn't exist. Very interesting to learn. Thanks! - rogspax, May 3, 2013
I respect the imput of both you and Julianchivi. Please resolve your disagreement for clarification. - Jubilado, May 4, 2013
Jubilado, sorry you feel that way. This is not a contest for me. I shared what I know about my language. That is as far as I can go. - francobollo, May 4, 2013
3
votes

Estaban pescando (por 5 horas) cuando les llegó la hora de irse.

Estuvieron pescando (por 5 horas) cuando les llegó la hora de irse/y después de fueron.

The first, in the past, explains what they were doing when (suddenly) they had to leave (for whatever reasons)

the second one states what they had been doing up until the time to leave came up/or what they did afterwards.

Does that make sense?

updated May 27, 2013
posted by chileno
3
votes

Here you are, a reference. It's more often likely to be estaba pescando, as a background, unknown time limit, however, it appears the preterite can be used, sounds a bit odd to me, but I'm still learning.

Unfortunatly the link actually doesn't come up very well in my computer, but, I think it makes sense, what bits of it I can see..

http://www.espanol-ingles.com.mx/spanish-grammar/verbs_imperfect_usage_2.shtml

updated May 27, 2013
edited by annierats
posted by annierats
Reading it now Annie. Thanks in advance for what I´m about to have clarified! - rogspax, May 4, 2013
I read the link. Thanks for posting this. It clarifies the usage as has been discussed here. Sometimes what is possible and used in some areas are not in others. - Jubilado, May 4, 2013
3
votes

Estuvieron pescando con nosotros por 5 horas en el río Colorado.

Actually, this would have to be imperfect "Estaban" because any verb in progressive by nature indicates an ongoing action and not a start or finish. The action may be finished, but we can not know this by the use of a progressive verb. Pretérito of "to be" + progressive doesn´t make sense.

updated May 27, 2013
edited by 005faa61
posted by 005faa61
JulianChivi, I´m understand your response to pescador1 but I´m a little unclear as to your more general response to my question. Are you saying that "pretertie of to-be + present participle" does not exist in Spanish? - Trieltor, May 3, 2013
Pretérito of "estar" / "ser" exists. Progressive verb forms exist. The combination of the two doesn´t make sense - 005faa61, May 3, 2013
I respect the imput of both you and francobollo. Please resolve your disagreement for clarification. - Jubilado, May 4, 2013
Is this a case of two very subtley different things existing, but one being much much more common? - rogspax, May 4, 2013
3
votes

You will absolutely encounter forms like this. All the time. Usually used to describe an event that the speaker perceives as being completed. One example along the lines of your example would be:

Estuvieron pescando con nosotros por 5 horas en el río Colorado.

updated May 27, 2013
posted by pescador1
I find it humorous that you, "pescador1", were the first to answer this question where I used "pescando" in my example. Thanks for the response. - Trieltor, May 3, 2013
Good answer. - francobollo, May 3, 2013
2
votes

Estaban pescando (por 5 horas) cuando les llegó la hora de irse. Estuvieron pescando (por 5 horas) cuando les llegó la hora de irse/y después de fueron. The first, in the past, explains what they were doing when (suddenly) they had to leave (for whatever reasons) the second one states what they had been doing up until the time to leave came up/or what they did afterwards. Does that make sense?

It does make sense, thanks. The meanings seem very close to me, as a beginner. So, the first one feels more sudden? As in something was interrupted, whereas in the second, the activity was already complete, and then it was time to go???

updated May 27, 2013
posted by rogspax
Right. On the first, maybe something started while the fishing was going on... see/ - chileno, May 4, 2013