What does "se desobedeciera" mean?

Question

In an on-line news article below, it uses "se desobedeciera" but there is no pronominal form for "desobedecer" listed. The "se" does not appear to indicate impersonal usage since Witherspoon is the "actor" in the sentence. It doesn't appear to be "se" for detransitizing since the direct object is "órdenes". And it is not passive. Any other possibilities for translation?

Witherspoon fue arrestada por mala conducta después de que se desobedeciera repetidamente las órdenes del oficial de permanecer en el coche mientras que su esposo, Jim Toth, hacía la prueba de alcoholemia, dijo la policía.

Answer 1

Actually. if Reese Witherspoon was doing the disobeying herself the phrase should read:

Witherspoon fue arrestada por mala conducta después de que se desobedeciera repetidamente las órdenes del oficial...

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In a general context, the impersonal "se" could be used as follows:

Witherspoon fue arrestada por mala conducta después de que se desobedecieraN repetidamente las órdenes del oficial. Here the action is placed on the orders not being followed and not on Witherspoon.

I hope this helps!

Answer 2

She disobeyed the orders of the police officer.
se desobedeciera repetidamente las órdenes del oficial
se = las órdenes del oficial

Jack, Thanks for your explanation but I am struggling with "se = las órdenes del oficial". Aren't the direct object pronouns los and las? How does "se" fit in here? - cdunn3, Apr 22, 2013

Answer 3

francobollo and jack are correct.

The orders from the judge were disobeyed.

las órdenes del juez se desobedecieron.

" Orders from the officer not the judge " but then again some officers are Judge, Jury and Executioner all rolled into one. - albert-fabrik-, Apr 22, 2013

hahah. Yes... - chileno, Apr 22, 2013

Thanks chileno. You reinforced what I thought was the correct relationship between órdenes and se desobedecieron. - cdunn3, Apr 22, 2013

You're very welcome. - chileno, Apr 22, 2013

Hey Chileno, does that mean that the usage of the singular "se desobedeciera" is technically incorrect here?? Or is there a reason that "las órdenes" would be treated as singular? Thanks - yo_la_tengo, Apr 23, 2013

Answer 4

It's the past tense 3rd person singular sunjunctive of desobedecer (to disobey). Perhaps the "se" is used because it means "disobeying", as in "after repeatedly disobeying the orders...", which uses more of a pssive tone than "after she repeatedly disobeyed". This is just a guess though!

Good guess,Ya got my vote. - albert-fabrik-, Apr 22, 2013

Answer 5

Jack, Thanks for your explanation but I am struggling with "se = las órdenes del oficial". Aren't the direct object pronouns los and las? How does "se" fit in here?

se is the impersonal form (it's a variation of the passive voice). Think of it as orders were disobeyed (passive voice) vs. someone disobeyed the orders - francobollo, Apr 23, 2013