Direct Object/Indirect Object Pronoun Question

Question

Is it grammatically correct to use the IO pronoun in place of the DO pronoun. I tend to see this construction a lot and I admittedly(and embarrassingly) tend to lose translation or mis-translate.

For example in the popular saying..... Dios les/le/lo/la bendiga... What I'm asking is one way more correct than the other?

Answer 1

I believe you are referring personal direct/indirect object pronouns. The RAE allows us to use le for lo/la and les for the plural, however leísmo is regional and constantly debated by gramarians.

To use leísmo for pronouns other than personal pronouns is incorrect.

Thank you for the clarification. You answered so many questions. - PapoPaz, Apr 14, 2013