Using indirect object pronouns

Question

Hi guys. If the question was, "¿Conoces tú al señor y a la señora Evans?", would an appropriate answer using an indirect pronoun be, "No, no les conozco"? I have to give a presentation tomorrow and I am wondering whether this is correct or not. Also, if the question is, "Les tienes miedo a los monstruos?", the answer would be, "No, no se los tengo miedo" right? This is very confusing, especially adding an indirect object pronoun with a direct object pronoun. If anyone is willing to help me out, thank you very much!

Answer 1

The reason the phrase al señor y a la señora Evans is a direct object is not because they are people, but because they are the direct object of the verb conocer.

In Spanish when a person is the direct object of a verb other than tener you use the preposition a before the person. This a is not translated into English. "I know Mr. and Mrs. Evans" not "I know to Mr. and Mrs. Evans.

However in a sentence like "I gave the ball to my son" in Spanish you would still use a mi hijo but in that sentence "my son" is the indirect object because you gave the ball not the son.

And you would say ¿Conoces a Andrew? again using that a preposition although Andrew is the direct object. And the answer would be Sí, lo conozco (direct object pronoun).

This makes so much more sense. I understand everything now. You're a better Spanish teacher than my teacher haha. Cheers. - Necrofear, Apr 11, 2013

Answer 2

Even though you use a before persons that are the direct objects of verbs this does not change them to indirect objects. No, no los conozco. should be the correct answer. This is an answer based on grammar. Usage by native speakers may vary and hopefully one will answer your question.
Also you rarely need to use the subject pronoun tú unless you need to emphasis it: You know them but I don't.

Ah okay, I see. So, if the question refers to people, I still have to use direct object pronouns? I never knew this before. Once again, thank you for your answer! - Necrofear, Apr 11, 2013

See my second answer because I need to clarify more. - Jubilado, Apr 11, 2013

Just to clear things up, if the question had been "¿Conoces Andrew?", would I have to say "Si, lo conozco" OR "Si, le conozco"? - Necrofear, Apr 11, 2013

Answer 3

Just to clear things up, if the question had been "¿Conoces Andrew?", would I have to say "Si, lo conozco" OR "Si, le conozco"? - Necrofear

¿Conoces 'a' Andrew? Sí 'lo' conozco. Yes, I know him.

Lo = direct object means'him'

Le = indirect object means 'to him' etc.

(Eg: Le di chocolate (a él). I gave chocolate 'to' him.

lit. to him + I gave + chocolate

 another person +  verb + object being given

It can get a little tricky deciding if you want to use the direct object pronoun 'lo' or the indirect one 'le' - this is because in English we often drop the 'to' - I gave him chocolate..... instead of I gave chocolate 'to' him.

But normally whenever you have your verb, another person and an object being given to that person you'll find that you'll need to use an indirect object pronoun.

In your example though you just have the verb and another person, no extra object involved so you just use the direct object pronoun.

Lo conozco. I know him. lit. Him I know.

If you'd like to learn more this lesson may help.

Thank you! Your lo "him" and le "to him" part cleared things up. I will definitely check out the website. - Necrofear, Apr 11, 2013

kewl bananas :) le can also mean to her etc but I was just keeping it simple to start with - Kiwi-Girl, Apr 11, 2013

Answer 4

In Spanish when a person is the direct object of a verb other than tener you use the preposition a before the person.

You are talking about the "personal a" and with tener as all verbs the "personal a" is used, ie: "No me siento solo porque te tengo a ti."

I like the rest of your explanation though.