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... si gustas?

12
votes

Hi all,

So, I'm out with my friend Livia this evening and we decide to grab a bit and practice after the Lila Downs concert (sidebar, it was awwwwwwsome), and she lays the phrase "si gustas" on me, which even after much discussion, I failed to understand.

The context was how to be more polite when asking someone out to some event. (Which I apparently need help on in Spanish, even though the woman had said yes to me). She suggested I could just tack on "si gustas" on the end. As in, if you like, or if you please.. I would have thought that would be "si te gusta" or "si te gustaría"

I don't get this. I'm sure I didn't misunderstand, and found a lot of examples of it surfing around.

Why would this be the case. I now know how to use it, but would prefer to understand it.

Help?

Thanks.

6069 views
updated Apr 11, 2013
edited by rogspax
posted by rogspax
I'm coming in late, but this was a good question and interesting followup information. - Jubilado, Apr 10, 2013

9 Answers

4
votes

It's not only correct, but common and elegant. Just one of the alternative uses of the verb gustar. Listed on RAE, meaning 5, so Noetol gave the right answer.

You should have answered a polite: "Gusto", Rog (smile) Keep that in mind next time.

updated Apr 19, 2013
edited by cogumela
posted by cogumela
Well, if there's one thing I like, it's being common and elegant. ;) Seriously, thanks Cogumela. I can't wait until my Spanish is good enough to understand the RAE better. Right now, it just raises 6 more questions for me. - rogspax, Apr 10, 2013
And in this case, I was being coached on how to invite someone better, and that I should have added "si gustas". But next time, I'll look to see if She says "gusto" (I'm just happy when I don't get slapped) :) Thanks again!!! - rogspax, Apr 10, 2013
I guess this is local. To me is "vintage" Spanish - DualG, Apr 11, 2013
6
votes

My take on this would be that "si gustas" would be, as you said, "if you please".

This is interesting because it is not used as a pronominal form, as is the normal case with gustar. The SD dictionary lists one use for polite forms (number three) as "would you like some", so it doesn't seem much of a stretch to say "si gustas" would mean "if you like", as you mentioned.

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by Noetol
Muy buena respuesta :) - cogumela, Apr 10, 2013
5
votes

In this case "Si gustas" has the same meaning of "if you would like to" In Spanish you can use it instead of "Si quieres"

And you can say "Si (usted) gusta" or "Si (tu) gustas".

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by 006e8826
I like your answer, but your profile is essentially blank. It helps to know more about the person who is answering to accept the answer. - Jubilado, Apr 10, 2013
Thanks Elzark. Glad you added the usted form too, as I may have to use that in a response to someone else this evening. - rogspax, Apr 10, 2013
Thanks, Elzark. Que bueno saber que es hispanohablante. - Jubilado, Apr 11, 2013
5
votes

and she lays the phrase "si gustas" on me,

That's not correct Spanish because it would mean "If you please it." However, I've noticed that many times native speakers tack on an "s" when it's not necessary.

For example, "¿Me llamastes?" (Did you call me?).

I found several threads online about this additional "S":

I have noticed something about some of the native Spanish speakers at work. Some, not all, will add an "s" at the end of a preterite verb when talking about and directly to someone. For example; my friend Jesus has asked me what I ate. He will ask, "¿Qué comistes?" He doesn't always add the "s", but he does it more often than not. Is this colloquial? Is this a beginner thing that I am oblivious to ? I have now caugth myself adding this "s" as well when I'm talking to someone just because Jesus is the one I primarily talk to in Spanish. What do you all think? Thanks

.

The additional 's' in the singular second-person preterite is regional, but that region happens to be all of Latin America (I think). I don't know about Spain.

The second-person conjugations all end in 's' except the singular second-person preterite, so adding a final 's' to the preterite form seems to make perfect sense in some people's minds.

It is considered incorrect in all the Spanish-speaking world, but that doesn't mean it isn't used. Only the less educated tend to use it habitually.

Avoid using it.

updated Apr 19, 2013
edited by --Mariana--
posted by --Mariana--
I'm not even sure this relates to your "gustas" because most articles talk only about the preterit tense. - --Mariana--, Apr 10, 2013
I've heard it too Mariana and thanks for posting, now it makes sense why it happens :) Logical really lol - Kiwi-Girl, Apr 10, 2013
Thanks for all that info Mariana. I've heard that added occasionally too, but never understood it. - rogspax, Apr 10, 2013
3
votes

I can´t say if the added phrase "si gustas" / "si gustan" etc. is correct or not, but this is quite common and accepted.

The additional S added to 2nd person familiar verbs is a completely different matter, ie: "¿Me llamastes?" This is absolutely incorrect.

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by 005faa61
Thanks for info on both Julian. It Does indeed seem to be common usage and considered proper. There are probably good articles on this topic in Spanish, that I couldn't understand yet. Maybe in the future. For now, thanks! - rogspax, Apr 10, 2013
3
votes

It's a short way for asking: would you like to have one?

It's probably not correct Spanish, but it's not unusual. It sounds ancient to me though, but may be local.

updated Apr 19, 2013
edited by DualG
posted by DualG
"short way" - Jubilado, Apr 10, 2013
Typo - DualG, Apr 10, 2013
Thanks 2G! - rogspax, Apr 10, 2013
3
votes

Hola. My guess (and it is a guess) is that "if it is pleasing" is just shortening of the phrase "if it is pleasing to yoü."

updated Apr 10, 2013
edited by kirk1
posted by kirk1
Problem is that "gustas" means that you are pleasing to something. - --Mariana--, Apr 10, 2013
Exactly, which is why it was so confusing. Seemed backwards (or, like English "like") - rogspax, Apr 10, 2013
2
votes

I've never heard "si gustas", only "gustas?" when someone was offering me a bite of their dinner. But it makes sense that it would mean "if you like"

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by rodneyp
Interesting. Sounds like two slightly different uses of the same thing. My context was basically "Hey, we could go grab a bite sometime, if you like" (assuming I heard the young lady right) Directionally (subj/obj) it's the opposite of the way I learned - rogspax, Apr 10, 2013
1
vote

Thanks to all of you for your help on this. I know I can't hope to understand everything at my level, and thus am willing to gloss over some things, up to a point, but this was so counter to what I'd learned, that I had to investigate a bit. Thanks especially to Cogumela for...

It's not only correct, but common and elegant. Just one of the alternative uses of the verb gustar. Listed on RAE, meaning 5

... as it gives me some reading to go do, along with what I learned from all of you, and from citations in linguee, that it seems to be very common, and apparently even correct.

As such, though I rarely click 'best answer' for fear of alienating any of you other fine answerers, I'm going to click it for cog this time.

Thanks, to All of you.

Roger.

p.s. so, on that note, on the RAE page, what the heck is the second search box exactly? The one labeled "Diccionario panhispánico de dudas"

Otra vez, muchísimas gracias.

updated Apr 19, 2013
posted by rogspax