Direct and Indirect object pronoun???

Question

I wrote a letter to Juan. The letter is the DO and Juan is the IDO, correct? Would it change if i wrote the sentence as-I wrote Juan a letter? Would Juan now become the DO and the letter become the IDO? Thanks

Answer 1

The DO (direct object) is always the person, place or thing that the verb acts upon. You might think of it as the answer to the question: What did the verb do?

The IDO (indirect object) is always the person, place or thing that the action of the verb acts "to" or "for." It answers the question: To / For whom / what did the verb do the action?

So in your examples, to the question: What did I write? The answer is always "a letter." And To whom did I write? It's always "Juan."

English has a rule with the indirect object: if you put the indirect object immediately after the verb you don't have to use the word "to" which is usually a sign of an indirect object. If you put the indirect object after the direct object then you have to use "to".

Examples: I gave my fiancee a ring (fiance IDO, ring DO); I gave a ring to my fiancee (no change in IDO and DO).

Sometimes in English you can't do this: I talk Spanish (DO) to my parents (IDO), but you can't say I talk my parents Spanish. Although if you use the verb "teach" instead of "talk" you can say it either way.

Answer 2

I wrote a letter to Juan ... letter is DO and Juan IDO

I wrote Juan a letter DO is still Letter and Juan is still IDO

Answer 3

I believe this is correct but don´t hold me to it.

The noun that verb directly acts on is the DO.

I wrote a letter. is complete. Letter DO

I wrote Jaun. is complete. Jaun DO

Sorry for the confusion, I meant just the Direct Object and Indirect Object of the sentence. Does the word order change whether some is a DO or IDO? - bfpsu, Mar 27, 2013

Answer 4

The letter and Jaun are not pronouns they are a noun letter and a propper noun Jaun.

I wrote the letter (DO) to Jaun (IDO).

I wrote it to him. is with pronouns.