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Why the difference between "es mal" and "está malo?"

Why the difference between "es mal" and "está malo?"

1
vote

I read elsewhere that either way is grammatically O.K. but it doesn't explain the grammar. The dictionary says mal = badly (adverb) and malo = bad (adjective). Yet es and está both mean "it/he/she is, but it doesn't sound right to use the adverb form - "it/he/she is badly."

13334 views
updated Mar 13, 2013
posted by Ken-Smith
You're confusing different things. Let's focus on "malo". Usted ES malo means that you are inherently bad; it is your nature. Usted ESTA malo means that (right now) your BEHAVIOR is bad in this particular instance. You are not bad, but your behavior is. - BruixNoire, Mar 13, 2013
At least in Spain, estar malo means to be ill. - pitocles, Mar 13, 2013
Thanks, I understand the permanent/temporary difference between ser and estar, but what about mal and malo? - Ken-Smith, Mar 13, 2013

2 Answers

1
vote

I agree with britisk.

"Es mal" does not exist in Spanish. "Está mal" could mean wrong. For example: That's wrong = Eso está mal

"Es malo" is OK. He's a bad person = Es una mala persona.

"Estar malo" means to be ill, and also can mean unpleasant, rotten, etc Un olor muy malo=A bad smell.

updated Mar 14, 2013
posted by pitocles
0
votes

I'll give this a try:

Mal is the short form of the same adjective, malo, and is only used BEFORE masculine nouns as in " mal hombre" = bad man or " mal día " = bad day. In connection with bad or poorly health you would use " estar malo " = to be sick.

Mal as an adverb can be used in many ways as " hacer mal a uno " = to hurt someone.

Maybe some other fellow learner can explain better than I do. ¡ Buena suerte!

updated Mar 13, 2013
posted by britisk