Why use "sea" instead of "es" in this sentence?

Question

Here is part of an entry from my Spanish journal. One of my friends has made corrections, but I'm not sure why the word "sea" is used instead of "es." I've checked the forums, but I'm still confused. Please help!

Tal vez mi gramática no sea la mejor, pero ¡tengo mucha voluntad!

Is this your first encounter with the subjunctive? You didn't say if you recognized "sea" to be that form. - Jubilado, Feb 28, 2013

Yes, this was the first time I had seen it. I figured it was some strange conjugation of "ser." - rgilbert3, Mar 5, 2013

Answer 1

On the blue bar on top click on Learn, then Spanish Grammar, cursor down to verbs then look for :Subjunctive vs. Indicative - WEIRDO vs. SPOCK, click on this and it will give you helpful guidelines on when to use the subjunctive.

There are more selections under verbs about the subjunctive. The Spanish Grammar link is worth exploring.

Thanks a bunch! I've been using the Grammar link, but the subjunctive is so new to me, I didn't even know what to look for! Your tip is very helpful. :-) - rgilbert3, Mar 5, 2013

Answer 2

Because of tal vez. It implies a degree of doubt/uncertainty, therefore the subjunctive is used.

Words meaning “perhaps” (tal vez, quizá, and quizás) may be followed by the subjunctive to suggest that the action or state is improbable, or doubtful; they may also be followed by the indicative to stress a greater degree of likelihood or probability. [Note: The expression for “perhaps” has no effect on the verb if it comes after the verb.]

The entire explanation is here: http://users.ipfw.edu/jehle/courses/persuad1.htm

Thank you. The link has a LOT of information! :-) - rgilbert3, Mar 5, 2013

Answer 3

In this case it's a bit like saying, well my Spanish 'might' not be any good but .....

It's the difference between that and ... My Spanish 'isn't' any good but .....

The reason being that the indicative mood (the usual conjugations you start off learning; soy, es, son etc for ser) declares things whereas the subjunctive mood, which is what 'sea' is ( the present tense of ser in the subjunctive mood) is used for everything else.

Good answer! :)) - Noetol, Feb 28, 2013

Thanks Noetol. - Kiwi-Girl, Mar 1, 2013

Thanks for the simple answer! Very helpful. - rgilbert3, Mar 5, 2013

my pleasure :) - Kiwi-Girl, Mar 5, 2013

Answer 4

Hello rgilbert

The subjunctive is often used in Spanish where in English we would use a Modal such as might - may - could - would etc.

In English the only verb that is changed for the subjunctive is the verb "to be".

Example:

If I were (not was) you I would be happy.

Spanish does not have any Modals.

Interesting. This is good info. Especially for a beginner like me. Thanks! - rgilbert3, Mar 5, 2013

Answer 5

Of course, I had to look up "Modal." Here is the wikipedia link for those who would like a look.

Thanks again to ian-hill for introducing me to modals!

I would just suggest that Modals are not verbs - but many disagree with me. :) - ian-hill, Mar 5, 2013

Answer 6

Thank you to everyone for introducing me to the subjunctive. I've also found information in my textbook (albeit 8 chapters ahead of what we are currently studying,) and now I know what to look for.
Your help is much appreciated! <3

Answer 7

Tal vez mi gramática no sea la mejor, pero ¡tengo mucha voluntad!

Quizá no sea de lo mejor mi lexico, pero no me hagas caso

Is this a better way to say the same message? Will you please translate and explain a little? Thank you! - rgilbert3, Mar 5, 2013