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1
vote

Can someone translate por favor.

¿No se te habrá caído al suelo? can someone also explain why use "se te", & "habrá"

Segurísimo.

¿Que confiese el qué? can someone explain the 1st Que

Lo de la lavadora no fue culpa mía, fue la pulsera Why "Lo de" why not just "la" for the?

Ya verás cuando mi padre se entere de que se ha roto el televisor. Please explain Ya

Gracias a todos

843 views
updated Feb 25, 2013
posted by Acelata

2 Answers

1
vote

1 The first sentence is a "se" construction, which makes the sentence impersonal and thus reduce the amount that you feel responsible for the action. The "te" means it happened to you aka the person you are talking to. You conjugate it in future tense to show... well, uncertainty or wonderment, it's kind of hard to explain. The sentence translates to "Might you have dropped it to the ground?"
2 I don't understand this one, it might either be idiomatic, or you might need more context to understand.

3 "Lo de" means something like "that thing from" It doesn't refer to an object, rather an idea. 4 The "Ya" when coupled with the future tense here implies a proximity, more or less, to the time that the action will occur. I might also say "Verás en un futuro no tan lejano," but that's just wordy. Ya is better.

updated Jun 7, 2013
posted by BigMike
0
votes

por favor means please....

updated Feb 25, 2013
posted by criancy_nenylyn