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accented vowels

accented vowels

2
votes

Hi,

I am a beginner in learning Spanish and have been recently doing the exercises on object pronouns. I seem to have great difficulty understanding why the accented vowels are added when there an object pronoun is added. For example; "Compra ( las plumas)" becomes "cómpralas" with an accent on the letter 'o'. What causes that? Thank yousmile

3706 views
updated Feb 21, 2013
posted by cimensev
Welcome to SD!! Great questions. - --Mariana--, Feb 18, 2013

4 Answers

1
vote

When a sentence has two verbs there are two options for placement of a pronoun. Place it immediately before the conjugated (usually the first) verb or attach it to the Infinitive (the second verb). in your example, the infinitive would be comprar. When the pronoun is attached to the infinitive, an accent on the third to last syllable is often required to preserve the pronounciation of the word.

updated Feb 18, 2013
posted by kirk1
that explains it! But that still has exceptions I believe as you say 'often' Thank you:) - cimensev, Feb 18, 2013
3
votes

Here's an example where the accent changes to keep the proper pronunciation.

¿Puedes llamarme? (stress is on the second "a" is normal, so no accent mark needed)

Llámame. (stress is now on the first "a" which is unusual, so an accent mark is needed)

Here are two lessons:

Stress

Accents

Hope this helps!

updated Feb 19, 2013
posted by --Mariana--
Thank you so much.Yes, it helped a lot .However, as a beginner I believe it will take time to recognise the differenc! - cimensev, Feb 19, 2013
Is it my computer? These quizes do not accept the correct answer. - Hungerford, Feb 19, 2013
2
votes

This is done in order to maintain the original accent of the word. Using your example, before adding the "las" to the word "compra" the natural accent falls on the penultimate syllable (or the second to last syllable). That is the "com." Since it is following the rule there is no written accent required. However, when you add the "las" the second to last syllable would then become the "pra"which does to retain the original sound of the word. The accent is added to help identify the natural spoken accent because it is not following the penultimate rule.

updated Feb 19, 2013
posted by happyhrj
Thank you so much:) - cimensev, Feb 19, 2013
0
votes

¿Trajó (el libro)?

Lo siento. Incorrect. "Lo" is the direct object pronoun for a singular masculine noun. It is placed in front of the conjugated verb. Correct answer: ¿Lo trajo?

How about in the above case when the accent disappears? My logic says it should be "Lo trajó" but it's wrong .

updated Feb 21, 2013
posted by cimensev
First of all, "traer" is an irregular verb in the preterite tense. All of the words that are irregular in the preterite tense do not require an accent. Second, remember the penultimate rule that generally the second to last syllable is accented. - happyhrj, Feb 20, 2013
Thank you very much:) - cimensev, Feb 21, 2013