Why is the indicative mood used in the first conditional si-statement?

Question

I want to better understand the "first conditional" sentence structure in Spanish. I have been reading this article about it: http://www.elearnspanishlanguage.com/gr ... ikely.html

It says that the "first conditional" is used when a condition is likely or possible to meet. Here are the three examples given:

Si llueve, no trabajamos - If it rains, we don't work. Si tengo tiempo, yo lo haré - If I have time, I will do it. Si puedes, llama mañana - If you can, call tomorrow.

I wonder if the indicative mood is always used in this type of Si-statement?

Using the "to declare/not to declare" test or the "does this idea belong to someone?" test, I still cannot figure out why indicative has to be used in the first conditional sentences.

Gracias,

erm, is there any chance of starting with something like - what does 'me llamo' mean? ;) - billygoat, Dec 13, 2012

Billy, are you being facetious? - francobollo, Dec 13, 2012

yes Frank, just joking. I'm just jealous because my Spanish is nowhere near as good as Jasmin's! - billygoat, Dec 13, 2012

Oh, I though Billy's Spanish is so good already, he forgot how to read long English sentences already, lol. Billy is a dear. ^-^ - JazSpanish, Dec 13, 2012

Answer 1

I'm a litlle uncertain, but are you asking why the indicative is used rather than the subjunctive?

Many people (including myself) becme confused on the use of the subjunctive in an "if" clause. As you said, if the condition set up in the statement is somthing that is likely or highly possible to meet, then the indicative is used.

If the subjunctive is called for, remember that you don't use the present subjunctive after "if". In this the imperfect subjuctive is normally used.

Check this link: imperfect subjunctive

Yea Noetol, that was my question. - JazSpanish, Dec 13, 2012

Answer 2

Hi, Jasmin!!

Yes, as others have pointed out this type of Si-statement takes indicative mood (present, future) or imperative (Si puedes, llama mañana), but not subjunctive.

If statements go apart from the "to declare/not to declare" test you are talking about. The declaration rule affects mainly to subordinate clauses, introduced by the word "que".

Spanish conditional statements work the same way as the English ones. The structure

If A ---> then B

is a connection based on your experience. The following statements all imply that you are certain that if A happens/happened, B will/would/should follow.

1.Si llueve me mojo (=Cuando llueve me mojo)

2.Si lloviera me mojaría

3.Si hubiera llovido me habría mojado

The difference between 1 and 2 is hard to explain for me*, but it's the same in English. 3 implies it didn't rain.

And why 1 takes indicative?? Well, I guess you can look at it this way.

If "something happens...", what's the point in using the word "llueva", which itself implies that you are not saying "it rains" ?? If you want to get to the end of the sentence (....---> then B), you have to state as a condition (IF) that A is true.

(*) I say it's hard to explain because I've read a lot of times that conditional 1 is 100% certain, but conditional 2 is only likely to happen. I disagree with this because for me, technically they are both 100% certain if they happen, unless you add the word "probably", or other words to express uncertainty. But then, when you are speaking, it's not the same to say "Si sigues gritando, me enfadaré" (which sounds threatening), as to say "Si puedo, te llamaré" (which sounds unlikely)

Hola, Cogumela. Thank you. You can always explain Spanish in a way I can absorb. - JazSpanish, Dec 14, 2012

w.r.t your * note: for 2nd conditional, my understanding is that the "uncertainty" resides in the condition, not the logic: the condition itself is not likely to happen, but once it happens, the logic is solid, i.e. 100% - JazSpanish, Dec 14, 2012

Hey Cogu, nice to see you around again :) - Kiwi-Girl, Dec 14, 2012

Answer 3

As you probably know, to express present or future action in the subjunctive you generally need to use the present subjunctive.

But the indicative is used in these kinds of statements because, generally speaking 'si' is never followed by the present subjunctive.

For your first example the indicative is the only option because you are talking about a habitual event - you are declaring that 'on the occasions that it rain, you don't work.' This is not an anticipated or future event, no need for the subjunctive.

The second one falls into into the situation that I mentioned above - you can't (I use the word 'can't' loosely as some native speakers occasionally will) use the present subjunctive after si.'

The third one, to me, looks like the tú command form - I would even expect llámame mañana.

You may find this lesson helpful. Si Clauses & Como si

Very impressive lesson, Kiwi, gracias & gratz! - JazSpanish, Dec 14, 2012

Thanx Jaz :) - Kiwi-Girl, Dec 14, 2012

Answer 4

Imperfect Subjuncive. It's the equivilant of our English "If I were..." type of construction.

I would have gone if you invited me!

Habría ido si me invitaras!

So in these "first-clause conditional" satements, our second clause will take the imperfect subjunctive. I'm assuming that this is what you were talking about?

Anyway, Noetol's link sums it up!

I'm asking the first conditional si-statement, not the one with imperfect subjunctive. But don't worry about it. I got it already. Gracias. - JazSpanish, Dec 14, 2012

"invitaras" is present subjunctive, here you need past subjucntive "hubieras invitado" ...... Also "had" is missing before "invited" on the English variant - 005faa61, Dec 14, 2012