Why is it my book conjugates Gustar differently to this site?

Question

My book says that Gustar means to like - as does this website.

However the conjugation goes as following;

Me gusta Te gusta Le gusta

Nos gusta Os gusta Los gusta

While this website conjugates it according to how -ar verbs are supposed to be conjugated.

Who is right, my book or this website?

Good question - welcome to SD amigo(a) - ian-hill, Nov 12, 2012

Answer 1

Both are right.

When you conjugate "gustar" as an "ar" verb, you need to use the preposition "de" in front of the object

1. Tú gustas del pan (you enjoy eating bread)
2. Gusto de la música clásica (I enjoy clasical music)

Here the "liker" is the subject of the sentence. In the other way of using it, it isn't.

1. Los dulces me gustan mucho. (I like candies very much)
2. A mis hermanos no les gusta la leche (My brothers don´t like milk)
3. Te gusta mucho el jugo de naranja (you like orange juice very much)
4. Te gustan las canciones alegres (you like merry songs)
5. Tú me gustas. ¿Yo te gusto? (I like you. Do you like me?)

See how the verb corresponds in number and person with the "liked thing", and not the "liker"? So the "liker" is a complement, and the subject is the "liked thing".

If you translate the conjugation of the verb "to like", as used in English, then "gustar" is as in your dictionary, "I like X ---> me gusta X"

(If anybody wants to add something, please do)

Xcellente! Really good explanation. - annierats, Nov 12, 2012

Never mind "it seems that it isn't" it just isn't. Que es lo que "gusta" a alguuien? Segun los ejemplos es "los dulces,la leche, el jugo de naranja, las canciones alegres". - geofc, Nov 12, 2012

Answer 2

Or to express it another way, it really is not so much a matter of how the verb is conjugated as it is how the verb is used, We think of gustar as 'to like' and that is the general meaning coveyed but gustar actually means 'to be pleasing' and in Spanish we do not say we like something; we say something is pleasing to us as in 'Me gusta la comida mexicana' (I like Mexican food or literaly, Mexican food is pleasing to me). Notice that in the English the person (I) is the subject, like is the verb and food is the direct object. In the literal Spanish, food is the subject, to please is the verb and the person is the indirect object. That is why the indirect object pronoun 'me' is used.

Even "mexican food pleases me" - ian-hill, Nov 12, 2012

You can think of it that way, but remember, you always use an indirect object pronoun with "gustar." - cola_jet_set, Nov 12, 2012

Answer 3

Unfortunately because of the way the verb gustar works all the instances you have given are in the third person singular so the verb has only partially been conjugated.