Mark on the last syllable
0
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Spanish future tenses of the "ustedes" form are like: hablarán(they will speak), comerán(they will eat), and vivirán(they will live).
And I have a question. Why is there the mark on the last syllable? Since they are the last syllables ending with "-n" they are already stressed without the mark. So, the mark seems to be superfluous.
Can anybody explain?
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updated Nov 7, 2012
edited by boseulized
posted by boseulized
1 Answer
0
votes
A word that ends in the consonants S or N will not have the last sylable stressed by grammar default. Words ending in all other consonants will have the last sylable stressed. So if "comerán" doesn´t have the tilde, it will be pronounced "co/mér/an" which is wrong
updated Nov 7, 2012
posted by 005faa61
Oh! That you! So, "olvidan" (they forget) sounds like "ol / ví / den" ? And "hablan" (they speak) sounds like "há / blan" ? - boseulized, Nov 7, 2012
(I meant to say Thank you, instead of that you. haha) - boseulized, Nov 7, 2012
