I just don't understand "se me".
In today's Word of the Day, «No quiero llevar mi pasaporte porque tengo miedo que se me pierda.» for example, does the passport lose itself to me? My problem is that there is a rule that when you have both direct and indirect object prepositions together, the indirect precedes the direct. It seems that se is the direct and me is the indirect here. So is that rule violated for reflexive verbs? Gracias por anticipado.
5 Answers
Yes, it is an indirect pronoun (me) but this is a passive voice construction, and in that, se has to lead. It is like 'se habla español´ or ´se venden de todos´ etc etc.
As gringo said above, is this used a lot in Spanish, and grammar books usually call it something like ¨The use of passive se for unintended or accidental events¨
The passive voice lends a feel of less blame, like in English.
I dropped the keys,
vs.
the keys fell, or, the keys were dropped.
In any case, the se proceeds the I.O.P. Note that the verb conjugation has to match the quanitiy of the relevant object. (as in with gustar, interesar, molestar etc)
Se me cayó el café
Se me cayeron las llaves.
Hope that helps.
It loses itself (from you). In Spanish you don't lose things they just get lost all by themselves. This also works with things that break. They break themselves.
Drop a cup of coffee. Mi café se me cayó.
It has always seemed to me to be a copout when the maid/cleaner/packer says "se me lo cayo". It wasn't her/his fault was it? oh no! the pestilential thing just decided to fall out of her/his hand. !!!Humph!!!
And, it's covered, a little bit, on this site here.
http://www.spanishdict.com/learn/show/83
and
http://www.spanishdict.com/topics/show/87
and
http://www.spanishdict.com/topics/show/88
hope that helps.
Roger
I understand that gringojrf. But isn't me an indirect object pronoun so according to the usual rule, it should be me se pierda?