Why "me" here but not there?

Question

I am studying a book during my commute called "Spanish Behind the Wheels". In the section I am studying they have one sentence translated two ways on two different pages. Why does one question start with me but not the other? What does me mean?:

1, Can you cash this check for me please? Translated two ways "¿Me puede cambiar este cheque por favor? or "¿Puede cambiarme este cheque por favor?"

So in light of that they also have "I can give you everything in cash" translated as "Le puedo dar todo en efectivo". Is it safe to say I could also say "Puedo dar usted todo en efectivo?"

How do you know which one to use or is it an either or thing?

Answer 1

"Me" is here and there, but you have not realized about it:

• ¿Me puede cambiar este cheque por favor?

• ¿Puede cambiarme este cheque por favor?

"Me" is here, and there, just in another position. You can add "me" to the verb and the meaning is absolutely the same.

So, the correct forms for the second sentence are:

• Le puedo dar todo en efectivo.

and

• Puedo darle todo en efectivo.

Answer 2

This little lesson may shed some light on it for you - 'where to place a Spanish indirect object pronoun'

For your second example 'puedo dar usted todo en efectivo' you have missed out the indirect object pronoun which is necessary - so it should say - 'Le puedo dar (a usted) todo en efectivo. or Puedo darle (a usted) todo en efectivo.

Edit: As kindly pointed out by Belldjin the 'a usted' is not always necessary (unless for some reason you really wanted to stress the 'to you' bit or it wasn't clear from the context that it meant 'to you' Ud, as it could also mean to him, her or it.)

Well, I disagree... "Le" is replacing the indirect object in that sentence. You don't need to say "Le puedo dar a usted", because that is a pleonasm. - Belldjin, Oct 13, 2012

Thank you for pointing that out Belldjin, it is often good practice to add the pronoun when the indirect object is in the third person unless it's very clear from the context. I mainly put it in as it was given in the original example and I wanted to - Kiwi-Girl, Oct 13, 2012

show that an 'a' would also be needed. But I should have also left an explanation that it wouldn't always be necessary, I've added one now, so thank you for pointing it out :) - Kiwi-Girl, Oct 13, 2012

Your explanation is very clear now. :) - Belldjin, Oct 13, 2012

:) - Kiwi-Girl, Oct 13, 2012

Answer 3

They're interchangeble w you can place the object pronoun before the conjugated verb or after the infinitive.

Answer 4

Thanks I will check out the lesson to study this further. This looks like an area that I might need to spend some time on.