Home
Q&A
Fueras and it's use in this sentence

Fueras and it's use in this sentence

1
vote

Hello,

"Yo te dije que fueras anoche para la casa."

In this sentence, is 'fueras' used because it is imperfect subjunctive?

And subjunctive is used because "yo te dije" is a command?

And the imperfect (past tense) is used because it's a command in the past?

Thank you!

1000 views
updated Oct 9, 2012
posted by Anna

1 Answer

1
vote

You are trying to create the "Subjunctive Mood" for a past event.

Whenever it is one's desire that someone else do something, then the subordinate clause has to be in he Subjunctive.

Whenever that (desire) takes place in the past, then the "Imperfect Subjunctive" is used in the subordinate clause.

I might have worded your Spanish sentence a little different.

Good luck, Viejito

updated Oct 9, 2012
posted by viejito