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Difference between "olvidar" and "olvidarse?"

Difference between "olvidar" and "olvidarse?"

1
vote

What is the difference between the two?

Isn't:

Olvidé las llaves.

the same as:

Me olvidé las llaves.

Thanks!

26827 views
updated Oct 5, 2017
posted by lindaestudiante

6 Answers

4
votes

What’s really a twister is- “se me olvidaron las llaves”…

It is - I lost the keys...but, in this particular setting...the meaning is - the keys got lost and I’m the victim...it happened to me ?

Se olvidaron las llaves- Passive voice...The keys got lost

Olvidé las llaves - I lost the keys (i'm guilty)

Me olvidé las llaves - I lost the keys (not my fault...whoops)

updated Jul 3, 2017
edited by viejito
posted by viejito
perfect answer - BradyLabuda, Jul 31, 2012
This helps me a lot, thanks! - Tencinour, Jul 3, 2017
1
vote
updated Oct 5, 2017
edited by ian-hill
posted by kenwilliams
Thanks Ken :) - Kiwi-Girl, Aug 1, 2012
Very helpful breakdown...thanks! - Haaris2599, Oct 5, 2017
1
vote

Without going into too much detail, you can say either one and they mean generally the same thing(although there could be a subtle difference between the two based on personal interpretation of the sentence). But remember that "olvidarse" is followed by the preposition "de". "Me olvidé de las llaves". You could also say "se me olvidaron las llaves", using the passive voice. With the passive voice the "de" is not necessary.

updated Feb 23, 2017
edited by kramer12
posted by kramer12
This is the correctone. - Daniela2041, Feb 23, 2017
1
vote

This whole discussion seems strange to me. I believe "ovidar" means "to forget". Maybe I am wrong, but to say I lost my keys, I personally would say "Perdí mis llaves."

updated Feb 22, 2017
posted by EstebanDirks
1
vote

I am not sure about this but

Olvidé las llaves. = I lost the keys - but maybe it was not my fault. (they were stolen)

Me olvidé las llaves. = I lost the keys and it was my fault.

I would appreciate comments from native speakers.

updated Jul 31, 2012
posted by ian-hill
ian-hill...I believe its just the reverse. Olvidarse omits to no fault. :) - viejito, Jul 31, 2012
oh :) - ian-hill, Jul 31, 2012
1
vote

I guess the answer is yes and no. Generally, when you use the pronominal form, you are indicating that the is no direct object associated with the verb, just a general statement of forgetting. When used in the transitive form, it requires an object. In other words, you specifically forgot something.

That being said, you will find a lot of overlap in useage.

Me olvidé - I forgot (general statement)

Olvidé las llaves - I forgot the keys. (specific statement).

Hoefully, I have that right. Please correct me if I'm out in left field on this!

updated Jul 31, 2012
posted by Noetol