Why is "Que" required in "Tengo que ir" ?

Question

I have a sentence that reads: Tengo que ir a la casa de mis abuelos.

Why is "que" necessary? Why can't it be Tengo ir a la casa de mis abuelos.?

I was under the impression that something like "Tengo estudiar." is grammatically correct for saying something like "I have to study."

Gracias!

Tener + que + infinitive = I have to etc ...........period. Set phrase. - ruiseñor, Jul 9, 2012

No es inglés. - ruiseñor, Jul 9, 2012

okay thanks. Sorry, I'm very much a beginner. - derrill, Jul 9, 2012

oh stupid me.. it's quite explicit in my textbook, "The verb tener is also used in the construction tener que + infinitive, which means to have to do something. It is used in the same way as the verb deber, but it carries a stronger sense of obligation." - derrill, Jul 9, 2012

Good question, Derrill. - 00e5a88f, Jul 9, 2012

Answer 1

The problem you face is trying to interpret the English language into Spanish. I can see why you think that the "que" isn't required because you are literally translating English into Spanish.

I have - to go - to the house of my grandparents.

Tengo - ir - a la casa de mis abuelos.

But as Marianne pointed out it doesn't sound like that to a Spanish native. There are some things you just have to accept and one of them is the "que" is required in this construction.

smart Eddy you're understood.....Open mind folk.jejeje - melipiru, Jul 9, 2012

Answer 2

Hi, Derrill. Welcome to the forum!

Tener + que + infinitive is the set formula for "I have to ....."

Think of some English phrases that always require a preposition, e.g., I have a gallon of milk (you couldn't just say "I have a gallon milk."), or I have to clean the house (you couldn't just say "I have clean the house").

Why can't it be Tengo ir a la casa de mis abuelos.?

You'd be saying "I have go to the house....." which doesn't make sense in either language, right?

Answer 3

"An idiom is an expression that cannot be immediately understood by analyzing its literal meaning" (Try out the Link)

Tener que as an idiomatic expression

Answer 4

Minds & languages don't 'interpret' because they are two different thought processes. The American mind & Spanish mind come from different cultural evolutions; therefore, they express thoughts from different view points. Cuktural research clears this problem up rather quickly. Happy reading!!

"The American Mind" no es la única mente que piensa en inglés. - ruiseñor, Jul 9, 2012